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Free demo questions for CompTIA SY0-701 Exam Dumps Below:

NEW QUESTION 1

After multiple on-premises security solutions were migrated to the cloud, the incident response time increased The analysts are spending a long time trying to trace information on different cloud consoles and correlating data in different formats. Which of the following can be used to optimize the incident response time?

  • A. CASB
  • B. VPC
  • C. SWG
  • D. CMS

Answer: D

Explanation:
CMS (Cloud Management System) is a software or platform that allows an organization to manage and monitor multiple cloud services and resources from a single interface or console. It can optimize the incident response time by providing a centralized view and control of the cloud infrastructure and applications, and enabling faster detection, analysis, and remediation of security incidents across different cloud environments.

NEW QUESTION 2

A security analyst discovers that one of the web APIs is being abused by an unknown third party. Logs indicate that the third party is attempting to manipulate the parameters being passed to the API endpoint. Which of the following solutions would best help to protect against the attack?

  • A. DLP
  • B. SIEM
  • C. NIDS
  • D. WAF

Answer: D

Explanation:
WAF stands for Web Application Firewall, which is a type of firewall that can monitor, filter and block web traffic to and from web applications. WAF can protect web applications from common attacks such as
cross-site scripting (XSS), SQL injection, directory traversal, buffer overflow and more. WAF can also enforce security policies and rules that can prevent parameter manipulation or tampering by an unknown third party. WAF is the best solution to help protect against the attack on the web API, as it can inspect the HTTP requests and responses and block any malicious or anomalous activity. Verified References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Other Application Attacks – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.3 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-application-attacks/ (See Web Application Firewall)
SY0-701 dumps exhibit CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Cram
https://www.oreilly.com/library/view/comptia-security-sy0-601/9780136798767/ch03.xhtml (See Web Application Firewall)
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Security+ domain #1: Attacks, threats, and vulnerabilities [updated 2021] https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/certification/security-domain-1-threats-attacks-and-vulnerabilities/ (See Web application firewall)

NEW QUESTION 3

Which of the following can be used to calculate the total loss expected per year due to a threat targeting an asset?

  • A. EF x asset value
  • B. ALE / SLE
  • C. MTBF x impact
  • D. SLE x ARO

Answer: D

Explanation:
The total loss expected per year due to a threat targeting an asset can be calculated using the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) multiplied by the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). SLE is the monetary loss expected from a single event, while ARO is the estimated frequency of that event occurring in a year. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-501, 7th Edition, by Emmett Dulaney and Chuck Easttom, Chapter 9: Risk Management, page 414.

NEW QUESTION 4

A security administrator is seeking a solution to prevent unauthorized access to the internal network. Which of the following security solutions should the administrator choose?

  • A. MAC filtering
  • B. Anti-malware
  • C. Translation gateway
  • D. VPN

Answer: D

Explanation:
A VPN (virtual private network) is a secure tunnel used to encrypt traffic and prevent unauthorized access to the internal network. It is a secure way to extend a private network across public networks, such as the Internet, and can be used to allow remote users to securely access resources on the internal network. Additionally, a VPN can be used to prevent malicious traffic from entering the internal network.

NEW QUESTION 5

A financial institution would like to store its customer data in a cloud but still allow the data to be accessed and manipulated while encrypted. Doing so would prevent the cloud service provider from being able to decipher the data due to its sensitivity. The financial institution is not concerned about computational overheads and slow speeds. Which of the following cryptographic techniques would BEST meet the requirement?

  • A. Asymmetric
  • B. Symmetric
  • C. Homomorphic
  • D. Ephemeral

Answer: B

Explanation:
Symmetric encryption allows data to be encrypted and decrypted using the same key. This is useful when the data needs to be accessed and manipulated while still encrypted. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 6

NEW QUESTION 6

A security architect is implementing a new email architecture for a company. Due to security concerns, the Chief Information Security Officer would like the new architecture to support email encryption, as well as provide for digital signatures. Which of the following should the architect implement?

  • A. TOP
  • B. IMAP
  • C. HTTPS
  • D. S/MIME

Answer: D

Explanation:
S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) is a protocol that enables secure email messages to be sent and received. It provides email encryption, as well as digital signatures, which can be used to verify the authenticity of the sender. S/MIME can be used with a variety of email protocols, including POP and IMAP.
References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-smime
SY0-701 dumps exhibit CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition (SY0-601), page 139

NEW QUESTION 7

A company is adding a clause to its AUP that states employees are not allowed to modify the operating system on mobile devices. Which of the following vulnerabilities is the organization addressing?

  • A. Cross-site scripting
  • B. Buffer overflow
  • C. Jailbreaking
  • D. Side loading

Answer: C

Explanation:
Jailbreaking is the vulnerability that the organization is addressing by adding a clause to its AUP that states employees are not allowed to modify the operating system on mobile devices. Jailbreaking is the process of removing the restrictions or limitations imposed by the manufacturer or carrier on a mobile device, such as an iPhone or iPad. Jailbreaking can allow users to install unauthorized applications, customize settings, or access system files. However, jailbreaking can also expose the device to security risks, such as malware, data loss, or warranty voidance. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-jailbreaking https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pd

NEW QUESTION 8

Security engineers are working on digital certificate management with the top priority of making administration easier. Which of the following certificates is the best option?

  • A. User
  • B. Wildcard
  • C. Self-signed
  • D. Root

Answer: B

Explanation:
A wildcard certificate is a type of digital certificate that can be used to secure multiple subdomains under a single domain name. For example, a wildcard certificate for *.example.com can be used to secure www.example.com, mail.example.com, blog.example.com, etc. A wildcard certificate can make administration easier by reducing the number of certificates that need to be issued, managed, and renewed. It can also save costs and simplify configuration.

NEW QUESTION 9

A company wants to deploy PKI on its internet-facing website The applications that are currently deployed are
• www company.com (mam website)
• contact us company com (for locating a nearby location)
• quotes company.com (for requesting a price quote)
The company wants to purchase one SSL certificate that will work for all the existing applications and any future applications that follow the same naming conventions, such as store company com Which of the following certificate types would best meet the requirements?

  • A. SAN
  • B. Wildcard
  • C. Extended validation
  • D. Self-signed

Answer: B

Explanation:
A wildcard certificate is a type of SSL certificate that can secure multiple subdomains under one domain name by using an asterisk (*) as a placeholder for any subdomain name. For example, *.company.com can secure www.company.com, contactus.company.com, quotes.company.com, etc. It can work for all the existing applications and any future applications that follow the same naming conventions, such as store.company.com.

NEW QUESTION 10

A security team is providing input on the design of a secondary data center that has Which of the following should the security team recommend? (Select two).

  • A. Coniguring replication of the web servers at the primary site to offline storage
  • B. Constructing the secondary site in a geographically disperse location
  • C. Deploying load balancers at the primary site
  • D. Installing generators
  • E. Using differential backups at the secondary site
  • F. Implementing hot and cold aisles at the secondary site

Answer: BD

Explanation:
* B. Constructing the secondary site in a geographically disperse location would ensure that a natural disaster at the primary site would not affect the secondary site. It would also allow for failover during traffic surge situations by distributing the load across different regions. D. Installing generators would provide protection against power surges and outages by providing backup power sources in case of a failure. Generators are part of the physical security requirements for data centers as they ensure availability and resilience. References: 1
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 8, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.1 : Explain the importance of secure staging deployment concepts 2
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam
Objectives, page 9, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.3: Summarize secure application
development, deployment, and automation concepts 3
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 11, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.5: Explain the importance of physical security controls

NEW QUESTION 11

Which of the following models offers third-party-hosted, on-demand computing resources that can be shared with multiple organizations over the internet?

  • A. Public cloud
  • B. Hybrid cloud
  • C. Community cloud
  • D. Private cloud

Answer: A

Explanation:
There are three main models for cloud computing: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Software as a Service (SaaS)12. Each model represents a different part of the cloud computing stack and provides different levels of control, flexibility, and management.
According to one source1, a public cloud is a type of cloud deployment where the cloud resources (such as servers and storage) are owned and operated by a third-party cloud service provider and delivered over the Internet. A public cloud can be shared with multiple organizations or users who pay for the service on a subscription or pay-as-you-go basis.

NEW QUESTION 12

A company uses a drone for precise perimeter and boundary monitoring. Which of the following should be MOST concerning to the company?

  • A. Privacy
  • B. Cloud storage of telemetry data
  • C. GPS spoofing
  • D. Weather events

Answer: A

Explanation:
The use of a drone for perimeter and boundary monitoring can raise privacy concerns, as it may capture video and images of individuals on or near the monitored premises. The company should take measures to ensure that privacy rights are not violated. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 8

NEW QUESTION 13

Two organizations are discussing a possible merger Both Organizations Chief Fi-nancial Officers would like to safely share payroll data with each Other to de-termine if the pay scales for different roles are similar at both organizations Which Of the following techniques would be best to protect employee data while allowing the companies to successfully share this information?

  • A. Pseudo-anonymization
  • B. Tokenization
  • C. Data masking
  • D. Encryption

Answer: A

Explanation:
Pseudo-anonymization is a technique of replacing sensitive data with artificial identifiers or pseudonyms that preserve some characteristics or attributes of the original data. It can protect employee data while allowing the companies to successfully share this information by removing direct identifiers such as names, addresses, etc., but retaining indirect identifiers such as job roles, pay scales, etc., that are relevant for the comparison.

NEW QUESTION 14

During a security assessment, a security finds a file with overly permissive permissions. Which of the following tools will allow the analyst to reduce the permission for the existing users and groups and remove the set-user-ID from the file?

  • A. 1s
  • B. chflags
  • C. chmod
  • D. lsof
  • E. setuid

Answer: C

Explanation:
The chmod command is used to change the permissions of a file or directory. The analyst can use chmod to reduce the permissions for existing users and groups and remove the set-user-ID bit from the file. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601, Chapter 6

NEW QUESTION 15

A security analyst is concerned about traffic initiated to the dark web from the corporate LAN. Which of the following networks should the analyst monitor?

  • A. SFTP
  • B. AIS
  • C. Tor
  • D. loC

Answer: C

Explanation:
Tor (The Onion Router) is a network and a software that enables anonymous communication over the internet. It routes the traffic through multiple relays and encrypts it at each layer, making it difficult to trace or monitor. It can access the dark web, which is a part of the internet that is hidden from conventional search engines and requires special software or configurations to access

NEW QUESTION 16

Which of the following environments can be stood up in a short period of time, utilizes either dummy data or actual data, and is used to demonstrate and model system capabilities and functionality for a fixed,
agreed-upon duration of time?

  • A. PoC
  • B. Production
  • C. Test
  • D. Development

Answer: A

Explanation:
A proof of concept (PoC) environment can be stood up quickly and is used to demonstrate and model system capabilities and functionality for a fixed, agreed-upon duration of time. This environment can utilize either dummy data or actual data. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Exam SY0-501

NEW QUESTION 17

A security analyst needs to implement an MDM solution for BYOD users that will allow the company to retain control over company emails residing on the devices and limit data exfiltration that might occur if the devices are lost or stolen.Which of the following would BEST meet these requirements? (Select TWO).

  • A. Full-device encryption
  • B. Network usage rules
  • C. Geofencing
  • D. Containerization
  • E. Application whitelisting
  • F. Remote control

Answer: DE

Explanation:
MDM solutions emerged to solve problems created by BYOD. With MDM, IT teams can remotely wipe devices clean if they are lost or stolen. MDM also makes the life of an IT administrator a lot easier as it allows them to enforce corporate policies, apply software updates, and even ensure that password protection is used on each device. Containerization and application whitelisting are two features of MDM that can help retain control over company emails residing on the devices and limit data exfiltration that might occur if the devices are lost or stolen.
Containerization is a technique that creates a separate and secure space on the device for work-related data and applications. This way, personal and corporate data are isolated from each other, and IT admins can manage only the work container without affecting the user’s privacy. Containerization also allows IT admins to remotely wipe only the work container if needed, leaving the personal data intact.
Application whitelisting is a technique that allows only authorized applications to run on the device. This way, IT admins can prevent users from installing or using malicious or unapproved applications that might compromise the security of corporate data. Application whitelisting also allows IT admins to control which applications can access corporate resources, such as email servers or cloud storage.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.office1.com/blog/byod-vs-mdm

NEW QUESTION 18

A security team suspects that the cause of recent power consumption overloads is the unauthorized use of empty power outlets in the network rack. Which of the following options will mitigate this issue without compromising the number of outlets available?

  • A. Adding a new UPS dedicated to the rack
  • B. Installing a managed PDU
  • C. Using only a dual power supplies unit
  • D. Increasing power generator capacity

Answer: B

Explanation:
Installing a managed PDU is the most appropriate option to mitigate the issue without compromising the number of outlets available. A managed Power Distribution Unit (PDU) helps monitor, manage, and control power consumption at the rack level. By installing a managed PDU, the security team will have greater visibility into power usage in the network rack, and they can identify and eliminate unauthorized devices that consume excessive power from empty outlets.
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/security-sy0-601-study-guide

NEW QUESTION 19
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