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NEW QUESTION 1

An analyst is working on an email security incident in which the target opened an attachment containing a worm. The analyst wants to implement mitigation techniques to prevent further spread. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the analyst to take?

  • A. Apply a DLP solution.
  • B. Implement network segmentation
  • C. Utilize email content filtering,
  • D. isolate the infected attachment.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Network segmentation is the BEST course of action for the analyst to take to prevent further spread of the worm. Network segmentation helps to divide a network into smaller segments, isolating the infected attachment from the rest of the network. This helps to prevent the worm from spreading to other devices within the network. Implementing email content filtering or DLP solution might help in preventing the email from reaching the target or identifying the worm, respectively, but will not stop the spread of the worm. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Chapter 5: Securing Network Infrastructure, 5.2 Implement Network Segmentation, pp. 286-289

NEW QUESTION 2

Which of the following allow access to remote computing resources, a operating system. and centrdized configuration and data

  • A. Containers
  • B. Edge computing
  • C. Thin client
  • D. Infrastructure as a service

Answer: C

Explanation:
Thin clients are devices that have minimal hardware and software components and rely on a remote server to provide access to computing resources, an operating system, and centralized configuration and data. Thin clients can reduce the cost, complexity, and security risks of managing multiple devices.

NEW QUESTION 3

An attacker replaces a digitally signed document with another version that goes unnoticed Upon reviewing the document's contents the author notices some additional verbiage that was not originally in the document but cannot validate an integrity issue. Which of the following attacks was used?

  • A. Cryptomalware
  • B. Hash substitution
  • C. Collision
  • D. Phishing

Answer: B

Explanation:
This type of attack occurs when an attacker replaces a digitally signed document with another version that has a different hash value. The author would be able to notice the additional verbiage, however, since the hash value would have changed, they would not be able to validate an integrity issue.

NEW QUESTION 4

Which of the following is required in order for an IDS and a WAF to be effective on HTTPS traffic?

  • A. Hashing
  • B. DNS sinkhole
  • C. TLS inspection
  • D. Data masking

Answer: C

Explanation:
an IDS (Intrusion Detection System) and a WAF (Web Application Firewall) are both used to monitor and protect web applications from common attacks such as cross-site scripting and SQL injection12. However, these attacks can also be hidden in encrypted HTTPS traffic, which uses the TLS (Transport Layer Security) protocol to provide cryptography and authentication between two communicating applications34. Therefore, in order for an IDS and a WAF to be effective on HTTPS traffic, they need to be able to decrypt and inspect the data that flows in the TLS tunnel. This is achieved by using a feature called TLS inspectio3n45, which creates two dedicated TLS connections: one with the web server and another with the client. The firewall then uses a customer-provided CA (Certificate Authority) certificate to generate an on-the-fly certificate that replaces the web server certificate and shares it with the client. This way, the firewall can see the content of the HTTPS traffic and apply the IDS and WAF rules accordingly34.

NEW QUESTION 5

Which of the technologies is used to actively monitor for specific file types being transmitted on the network?

  • A. File integrity monitoring
  • B. Honeynets
  • C. Tcpreplay
  • D. Data loss prevention

Answer: D

Explanation:
Data loss prevention (DLP) is a technology used to actively monitor for specific file types being transmitted on the network. DLP solutions can prevent the unauthorized transfer of sensitive information, such as credit card numbers and social security numbers, by monitoring data in motion.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 2: Technologies and Tools, pp. 99-102.

NEW QUESTION 6

A security architect is required to deploy to conference rooms some workstations that will allow sensitive data to be displayed on large screens. Due to the nature of the data, it cannot be stored in the conference rooms. The file share is located in a local data center. Which of the following should the security architect recommend to best meet the requirement?

  • A. Fog computing and KVMs
  • B. VDI and thin clients
  • C. Private cloud and DLP
  • D. Full drive encryption and thick clients

Answer: B

Explanation:
VDI and thin clients are the best solution to deploy to conference rooms for displaying sensitive data on large screens. VDI stands for virtual desktop infrastructure, which is a technology that hosts the desktop operating systems and applications on a central server or cloud and allows users to access them remotely. Thin clients are devices that have minimal hardware and software components and rely on a network connection to the VDI system. By using VDI and thin clients, the security architect can ensure that the sensitive data is not stored in the conference rooms, but rather in a secure data center or cloud. The thin clients can also be easily managed and updated centrally, reducing the maintenance costs and risks. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.acecloudhosting.com/blog/what-is-vdi-thin-client/
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.parallels.com/blogs/ras/vdi-thin-client/

NEW QUESTION 7

An organization is outlining data stewardship roles and responsibilities. Which of the following employee roles would determine the purpose of data and how to process it?

  • A. Data custodian
  • B. Data controller
  • C. Data protection officer
  • D. Data processor

Answer: B

Explanation:
A data controller is an employee role that would determine the purpose of data and how to process it. A data controller is a person or entity that decides why and how personal data is collected, used, stored, shared, or deleted. A data controller has the responsibility to comply with data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), and to ensure the rights and privacy of data subjects.
References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-data-controller
https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pd

NEW QUESTION 8

An air traffic controller receives a change in flight plan for an morning aircraft over the phone. The air traffic controller compares the change to what appears on radar and determines the information to be false. As a result, the air traffic controller is able to prevent an incident from occurring. Which of the following is this scenario an example of?

  • A. Mobile hijacking
  • B. Vishing
  • C. Unsecure VoIP protocols
  • D. SPIM attack

Answer: B

Explanation:
Vishing is a form of phishing that uses voice calls or voice messages to trick victims into revealing personal information, such as credit card numbers, bank details, or passwords. Vishing often uses spoofed phone numbers, voice-altering software, or social engineering techniques to impersonate legitimate organizations or authorities. In this scenario, the caller pretended to be someone who could change the flight plan of an aircraft, which could have caused a serious incident.

NEW QUESTION 9

An organization decided not to put controls in place because of the high cost of implementing the controls
compared to the cost of a potential fine. Which of the following risk management strategies is the organization following?

  • A. Transference
  • B. Avoidance
  • C. Mitigation
  • D. Acceptance

Answer: D

Explanation:
Acceptance is a risk management strategy that involves acknowledging the existence and potential impact of a risk, but deciding not to take any action to reduce or eliminate it. This strategy is usually adopted when the cost of implementing controls outweighs the benefit of mitigating the risk, or when the risk is deemed acceptable or unavoidable. In this case, the organization decided not to put controls in place because of the high cost compared to the potential fine, which means they accepted the risk. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-risk-acceptance

NEW QUESTION 10

A Security engineer needs to implement an MDM solution that complies with the corporate mobile device policy. The policy states that in order for mobile users to access corporate resources on their devices, the following requirements must be met:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Mobile device OSs must be patched up to the latest release.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit A screen lock must be enabled (passcode or biometric).
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Corporate data must be removed if the device is reported lost or stolen.
Which of the following controls should the security engineer configure? (Select two).

  • A. Disable firmware over-the-air
  • B. Storage segmentation
  • C. Posture checking
  • D. Remote wipe
  • E. Full device encryption
  • F. Geofencing

Answer: CD

Explanation:
Posture checking and remote wipe are two controls that the security engineer should configure to comply with the corporate mobile device policy. Posture checking is a process that verifies if a mobile device meets certain security requirements before allowing it to access corporate resources. For example, posture checking can check if the device OS is patched up to the latest release and if a screen lock is enabled. Remote wipe is a feature that allows the administrator to erase all data from a mobile device remotely, in case it is lost or stolen. This can prevent unauthorized access to corporate data on the device.

NEW QUESTION 11

A company owns a public-facing e-commerce website. The company outsources credit card transactions to a payment company. Which of the following BEST describes the role of the payment company?

  • A. Data controller
  • B. Data custodian
  • C. Data owners
  • D. Data processor

Answer: D

Explanation:
A data processor is an organization that processes personal data on behalf of a data controller. In this scenario, the company that owns the e-commerce website is the data controller, as it determines the purposes and means of processing personal data (e.g. credit card information). The payment company is a data processor, as it processes personal data on behalf of the e-commerce company (i.e. it processes credit card transactions).
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-601) 7th Edition by Emmett Dulaney, Chuck Easttom

NEW QUESTION 12

While troubleshooting a firewall configuration, a technician determines that a "deny any" policy should be added to the bottom of the ACL. The technician updates the policy, but the new policy causes several company servers to become unreachable. Which of the following actions would prevent this issue?

  • A. Documenting the new policy in a change request and submitting the request to change management
  • B. Testing the policy in a non-production environment before enabling the policy in the production network
  • C. Disabling any intrusion prevention signatures on the "deny any" policy prior to enabling the new policy
  • D. Including an "allow any" policy above the "deny any" policy

Answer: B

Explanation:
Testing the policy in a non-production environment before enabling the policy in the production network would prevent the issue of making several company servers unreachable. A non-production environment is a replica of the production network that is used for testing, development, or training purposes. By testing the policy in a non-production environment, the technician can verify the functionality and impact of the policy without affecting the real network or users. This can help to identify and resolve any errors or conflicts before applying the policy to the production network. Testing the policy in a non-production environment can also help to ensure compliance with security standards and best practices.

NEW QUESTION 13

A security researcher has alerted an organization that its sensitive user data was found for sale on a website. Which of the following should the organization use to inform the affected parties?

  • A. An incident response plan
  • B. A communications plan
  • C. A business continuity plan
  • D. A disaster recovery plan

Answer: B

Explanation:
A communications plan should be used to inform the affected parties about the sale of sensitive user data on a website. The communications plan should detail how the organization will handle media inquiries, how to communicate with customers, and how to respond to other interested parties.

NEW QUESTION 14

A network engineer receives a call regarding multiple LAN-connected devices that are on the same switch. The devices have suddenly been experiencing speed and latency issues while connecting to network resources. The engineer enters the command show mac address-table and reviews the following output
SY0-701 dumps exhibit
Which of the following best describes the attack that is currently in progress?

  • A. MAC flooding
  • B. Evil twin
  • C. ARP poisoning
  • D. DHCP spoofing

Answer: C

Explanation:
This is an attempt to redirect traffic to an attacking host by sending an ARP packet that contains the forged address of the next hop router. The attacker tricks the victim into believing that it is the legitimate router by sending a spoofed ARP reply with its own MAC address. This causes the victim to send all its traffic to the attacker instead of the router. The attacker can then intercept, modify, or drop the packets as they please.

NEW QUESTION 15

A security engineer is installing a WAF to protect the company's website from malicious web requests over SSL. Which of the following is needed to meet the objective?

  • A. A reverse proxy
  • B. A decryption certificate
  • C. A spill-tunnel VPN
  • D. Load-balanced servers

Answer: B

Explanation:
A Web Application Firewall (WAF) is a security solution that protects web applications from various types of attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and others. It is typically deployed in front of web servers to inspect incoming traffic and filter out malicious requests.
To protect the company’s website from malicious web requests over SSL, a decryption certificate is needed to decrypt the SSL traffic before it reaches the WAF. This allows the WAF to inspect the traffic and filter out malicious requests.

NEW QUESTION 16

A major manufacturing company updated its internal infrastructure and just started to allow OAuth application to access corporate data Data leakage is being reported Which of following most likely caused the issue?

  • A. Privilege creep
  • B. Unmodified default
  • C. TLS
  • D. Improper patch management

Answer: A

Explanation:
Privilege creep is the gradual accumulation of access rights beyond what an individual needs to do his or her job. In information technology, a privilege is an identified right that a particular end user has to a particular system resource, such as a file folder or virtual machine. Privilege creep often occurs when an employee changes job responsibilities within an organization and is granted new privileges. While employees may need to retain their former privileges during a period of transition, those privileges are rarely revoked and result in an unnecessary accumulation of access privileges. Privilege creep creates a security risk by increasing the attack surface and exposing sensitive data or systems to unauthorized or malicious users.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/privilege-creep

NEW QUESTION 17

A security analyst has been tasked with creating a new WiFi network for the company. The requirements received by the analyst are as follows:
•Must be able to differentiate between users connected to WiFi
•The encryption keys need to change routinely without interrupting the users or forcing reauthentication
•Must be able to integrate with RADIUS
•Must not have any open SSIDs
Which of the following options BEST accommodates these requirements?

  • A. WPA2-Enterprise
  • B. WPA3-PSK
  • C. 802.11n
  • D. WPS

Answer: A

Explanation:
Detailed
WPA2-Enterprise can accommodate all of the requirements listed. WPA2-Enterprise uses 802.1X authentication to differentiate between users, supports the use of RADIUS for authentication, and allows for the use of dynamic encryption keys that can be changed without disrupting the users or requiring reauthentication. Additionally, WPA2-Enterprise does not allow for open SSIDs.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 7: Securing Networks, p. 317

NEW QUESTION 18

A company completed a vulnerability scan. The scan found malware on several systems that were running older versions of Windows. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the malware infection?

  • A. Open permissions
  • B. Improper or weak patch management
  • C. Unsecure root accounts
  • D. Default settings

Answer: B

Explanation:
The reason for this is that older versions of Windows may have known vulnerabilities that have been patched in more recent versions. If a company is not regularly patching their systems, they are leaving those vulnerabilities open to exploit, which can allow malware to infect the systems.
It is important to regularly update and patch systems to address known vulnerabilities and protect against potential malware infections. This is an important aspect of proper security management.
Here is a reference to the CompTIA Security+ certification guide which states that "Properly configuring and
maintaining software, including patch management, is critical to protecting systems and data."
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: SY0-601 by Emmett Dulaney, Chuck Easttom https://www.wiley.com/en-us/CompTIA+Security%2B+Study+Guide%3A+SY0-601-p-9781119515968

NEW QUESTION 19
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