Exam Code: SY0-701 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Exam
Certification Provider: CompTIA
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NEW QUESTION 1

An organization with a low tolerance for user inconvenience wants to protect laptop hard drives against loss or data theft. Which of the following would be the most acceptable?

  • A. SED
  • B. HSM
  • C. DLP
  • D. TPM

Answer: A

Explanation:
SED stands for Self-Encrypting Drive, which is a type of hard drive that automatically encrypts and decrypts data using a built-in hardware encryption engine1. SEDs do not require any additional software or configuration, and they do not affect the performance or usability of the laptop2. SEDs also have a feature called Instant Secure Erase, which allows the user to quickly and securely wipe the data on the drive by deleting the encryption key1.

NEW QUESTION 2

A Chief Information Officer is concerned about employees using company-issued laptops lo steal data when accessing network shares. Which of the following should the company Implement?

  • A. DLP
  • B. CASB
  • C. HIDS
  • D. EDR
  • E. UEFI

Answer: A

Explanation:
The company should implement Data Loss Prevention (DLP) to prevent employees from stealing data when accessing network shares. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601, Chapter 8

NEW QUESTION 3

You are security administrator investigating a potential infection on a network.
Click on each host and firewall. Review all logs to determine which host originated the Infecton and then deny each remaining hosts clean or infected.
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Solution:
Based on the logs, it seems that the host that originated the infection is 192.168.10.22. This host has a
suspicious process named svchost.exe running on port 443, which is unusual for a Windows service. It also
has a large number of outbound connections to different IP addresses on port 443, indicating that it is part of a botnet.
The firewall log shows that this host has been communicating with 10.10.9.18, which is another infected host on the engineering network. This host also has a suspicious process named svchost.exe running on port 443, and a large number of outbound connections to different IP addresses on port 443.
The other hosts on the R&D network (192.168.10.37 and192.168.10.41) are clean, as they do not have any
suspicious processes or connections.

Does this meet the goal?
  • A. Yes
  • B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4

A security engineer needs to create a network segment that can be used for servers thal require connections from untrusted networks. Which of the following should the engineer implement?

  • A. An air gap
  • B. A hot site
  • C. A VUAN
  • D. A screened subnet

Answer: D

Explanation:
A screened subnet is a network segment that can be used for servers that require connections from untrusted networks. It is placed between two firewalls, with one firewall facing the untrusted network and the other facing the trusted network. This setup provides an additional layer of security by screening the traffic that flows between the two networks. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Exam SY0-501

NEW QUESTION 5

A company wants to deploy decoy systems alongside production systems in order to entice threat actors and to learn more about attackers. Which of the follow r 3 best describes these systems?

  • A. DNS sinkholes
  • B. Honey pots
  • C. Virtual machines
  • D. Neural networks

Answer: B

Explanation:
Honey pots are decoy systems or resources that are designed to attract and deceive threat actors and to learn more about their motives, techniques, etc. They can be deployed alongside production systems to create an illusion of a vulnerable target and divert attacks away from the real systems. They can also collect valuable information and evidence about the attackers and their activities for further analysis or prosecution.

NEW QUESTION 6

one of the attendees starts to notice delays in the connection. and the HTTPS site requests are reverting to HTTP. Which of the following BEST describes what is happening?

  • A. Birthday collision on the certificate key
  • B. DNS hacking to reroute traffic
  • C. Brute force to the access point
  • D. A SSL/TLS downgrade

Answer: D

Explanation:
The scenario describes a Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack where the attacker intercepts traffic and downgrades the secure SSL/TLS connection to an insecure HTTP connection. This type of attack is commonly known as SSL/TLS downgrade attack or a stripping attack. The attacker is able to see and modify the communication between the client and server.

NEW QUESTION 7

Which of the following tools can assist with detecting an employee who has accidentally emailed a file containing a customer's Pll?

  • A. SCAP
  • B. NetFlow
  • C. Antivirus
  • D. DLP

Answer: D

Explanation:
DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention, which is a technology that can monitor, detect and prevent the unauthorized transmission of sensitive data, such as PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can be implemented on endpoints, networks, servers or cloud services to protect data in motion, in use or at rest. DLP can also block or alert on data transfers that violate predefined policies or rules. DLP is the best tool to assist with detecting an employee who has accidentally emailed a file containing a customer’s PII, as it can scan the email content and attachments for any data that matches the criteria of PII and prevent the email from being sent or notify the administrator of the incident. Verified References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Data Loss Prevention Guide to Blocking Leaks - CompTIA https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/data-loss-prevention-a-step-by-step-guide-to-blocking-leaks
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Data Loss Prevention – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.1 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-loss-prevention-4/
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Data Loss Prevention – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 – 2.1 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/data-loss-prevention-3/

NEW QUESTION 8

An organization routes all of its traffic through a VPN Most users are remote and connect into a corporate data center that houses confidential information There is a firewall at the internet border, followed by a DLP appliance, the VPN server and the data center itself Which of the following is the weakest design element?

  • A. The DLP appliance should be integrated into a NGFW.
  • B. Split-tunnel connections can negatively impact the DLP appliance's performance.
  • C. Encrypted VPN traffic will not be inspected when entering or leaving the network.
  • D. Adding two hops in the VPN tunnel may slow down remote connections

Answer: C

Explanation:
VPN (Virtual Private Network) traffic is encrypted to protect its confidentiality and integrity over the internet. However, this also means that it cannot be inspected by security devices or tools when entering or leaving the network, unless it is decrypted first. This can create a blind spot or a vulnerability for the network security posture, as malicious traffic or data could bypass detection or prevention mechanisms by using VPN encryption

NEW QUESTION 9

A security analyst received the following requirements for the deployment of a security camera solution:
* The cameras must be viewable by the on-site security guards.
+ The cameras must be able to communicate with the video storage server.
* The cameras must have the time synchronized automatically.
* The cameras must not be reachable directly via the internet.
* The servers for the cameras and video storage must be available for remote maintenance via the company VPN.
Which of the following should the security analyst recommend to securely meet the remote connectivity requirements?

  • A. Creating firewall rules that prevent outgoing traffic from the subnet the servers and cameras reside on
  • B. Deploying a jump server that is accessible via the internal network that can communicate with the servers
  • C. Disabling all unused ports on the switch that the cameras are plugged into and enabling MAC filtering
  • D. Implementing a WAF to allow traffic from the local NTP server to the camera server

Answer: B

Explanation:
A jump server is a system that is used to manage and access systems in a separate security zone. It acts as a bridge between two different security zones and provides a controlled and secure way of accessing systems between them12. A jump server can also be used for auditing traffic and user activity for real-time surveillance 3. By deploying a jump server that is accessible via the internal network, the security analyst can securely meet the remote connectivity requirements for the servers and cameras without exposing them directly to the internet or allowing outgoing traffic from their subnet. The other options are not suitable because:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit A. Creating firewall rules that prevent outgoing traffic from the subnet the servers and cameras reside on would not allow remote maintenance via the company VPN.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit C. Disabling all unused ports on the switch that the cameras are plugged into and enabling MAC filtering would not prevent direct internet access to the cameras or servers.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit D. Implementing a WAF to allow traffic from the local NTP server to the camera server would not address the remote connectivity requirements or protect the servers from internet access.
References:
1: https://www.thesecuritybuddy.com/network-security/what-is-a-jump-server/ 3:
https://www.ssh.com/academy/iam/jump-server 2: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jump_server

NEW QUESTION 10

During an incident, an EDR system detects an increase in the number of encrypted outbound connections from multiple hosts. A firewall is also reporting an increase in outbound connections that use random high ports. An analyst plans to review the correlated logs to find the source of the incident. Which of the following tools will best assist the analyst?

  • A. A vulnerability scanner
  • B. A NGFW
  • C. The Windows Event Viewer
  • D. A SIEM

Answer: D

Explanation:
A security information and event management (SIEM) system will best assist the analyst to review the correlated logs to find the source of the incident. A SIEM system is a type of software or service that collects, analyzes, and correlates logs and events from multiple sources, such as firewalls, EDR systems, servers, or applications. A SIEM system can help to detect and respond to security incidents, provide alerts and reports, support investigations and forensics, and comply with regulations. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-siem
https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pd

NEW QUESTION 11

Cloud security engineers are planning to allow and deny access to specific features in order to in-crease data security. Which of the following cloud features is the most appropriate to ensure ac-cess is granted properly?

  • A. API integrations
  • B. Auditing
  • C. Resource policies
  • D. Virtual networks

Answer: C

Explanation:
Resource policies are cloud features that allow and deny access to specific features in order to increase data security. Resource policies are rules or statements that define what actions can be performed on a particular resource by which entities under what conditions. Resource policies can be attached to cloud resources such as virtual machines, storage accounts, databases, or functions. Resource policies can help enforce security best practices, compliance requirements, and cost management. Resource policies can also help implement the principle of least privilege, which grants users only the minimum level of access they need to perform their tasks.

NEW QUESTION 12

A security analyst is looking for a solution to help communicate to the leadership team the seventy levels of the organization's vulnerabilities. Which of the following would best meet this need?

  • A. CVE
  • B. SIEM
  • C. SOAR
  • D. CVSS

Answer: D

Explanation:
CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) is a framework and a metric that provides a standardized and consistent way of assessing and communicating the severity levels of vulnerabilities. It assigns a numerical score and a vector string to each vulnerability based on various factors, such as exploitability, impact, scope, etc. It can help communicate to the leadership team the severity levels of the organization’s vulnerabilities by providing a quantitative and qualitative measure of the risks and the potential impacts.

NEW QUESTION 13

An organization has hired a security analyst to perform a penetration test The analyst captures 1Gb worth of inbound network traffic to the server and transfers the pcap back to the machine for analysis. Which of the following tools should the analyst use to further review the pcap?

  • A. Nmap
  • B. CURL
  • C. Neat
  • D. Wireshark

Answer: D

Explanation:
Wireshark is a tool that can analyze pcap files, which are files that capture network traffic. Wireshark can display the packets, protocols, and other details of the network traffic in a graphical user interface. Nmap is a tool that can scan networks and hosts for open ports and services. CURL is a tool that can transfer data from or to a server using various protocols. Neat is a tool that can test network performance and quality.

NEW QUESTION 14

A company is concerned about individuals driving a car into the building to gain access. Which of the following security controls would work BEST to prevent this from happening?

  • A. Bollard
  • B. Camera
  • C. Alarms
  • D. Signage
  • E. Access control vestibule

Answer: A

Explanation:
Bollards are posts designed to prevent vehicles from entering an area. They are usually made of steel or concrete and are placed close together to make it difficult for vehicles to pass through. In addition to preventing vehicles from entering an area, bollards can also be used to protect buildings and pedestrians from ramming attacks. They are an effective and cost-efficient way to protect buildings and pedestrians from unauthorized access.

NEW QUESTION 15

An IT manager is estimating the mobile device budget for the upcoming year. Over the last five years, the number of devices that were replaced due to loss, damage, or theft steadily increased by 10%. Which of the following would best describe the estimated number of devices to be replaced next year?

  • A. SLA
  • B. ARO
  • C. RPO
  • D. SLE

Answer: B

Explanation:
ARO stands for annualized rate of occurrence, which is a metric that estimates how often a threat event will occur within a year. ARO can help an IT manager estimate the mobile device budget for the upcoming year by multiplying the number of devices replaced in the previous year by the percentage increase of replacement over the last five years. For example, if 100 devices were replaced in the previous year and the replacement rate increased by 10% each year for the last five years, then the estimated number of devices to be replaced next year is 100 x (1 + 0.1)^5 = 161.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24866/annualized-rate-of-occurrence-aro

NEW QUESTION 16

An organization is concerned about hackers potentially entering a facility and plugging in a remotely accessible Kali Linux box. Which of the following should be the first lines of defense against such an attack? (Select TWO)

  • A. MAC filtering
  • B. Zero trust segmentation
  • C. Network access control
  • D. Access control vestibules
  • E. Guards
  • F. Bollards

Answer: CE

Explanation:
Network access control (NAC) is a technique that restricts access to a network based on the identity, role, device, location, or other criteria of the users or devices. NAC can prevent unauthorized or malicious devices from connecting to a network and accessing sensitive data or resources.
Guards are physical security personnel who monitor and control access to a facility. Guards can prevent unauthorized or malicious individuals from entering a facility and plugging in a remotely accessible device.

NEW QUESTION 17

An employee used a corporate mobile device during a vacation Multiple contacts were modified in the device vacation Which of the following method did attacker to insert the contacts without having 'Physical access to device?

  • A. Jamming
  • B. BluJacking
  • C. Disassoaatm
  • D. Evil twin

Answer: B

Explanation:
bluejacking is the sending of unsolicited messages over Bluetooth to Bluetooth-enabled devices such as mobile phones, PDAs or laptop computers. Bluejacking does not involve device hijacking, despite what the
name implies. In this context, a human might say that the best answer to the question is B. BluJacking, because it is a method that can insert contacts without having physical access to the device.

NEW QUESTION 18

A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is evaluating (he dangers involved in deploying a new ERP system tor the company. The CISO categorizes the system, selects the controls mat apply to the system, implements the controls, and then assesses the success of the controls before authorizing the system Which of the following is the CISO using to evaluate Hie environment for this new ERP system?

  • A. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
  • B. CIS Critical Security Controls
  • C. NIST Risk Management Framevtoik
  • D. ISO 27002

Answer: C

Explanation:
The CISO is using the NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF) to evaluate the environment for the new ERP system. The RMF is a structured process for managing risks that involves categorizing the system, selecting controls, implementing controls, assessing controls, and authorizing the system.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 4: Risk Management, pp. 188-191.

NEW QUESTION 19
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