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Q231. - (Topic 5)
A small company’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has asked its Chief Security Officer (CSO) to improve the company’s security posture with regard to targeted attacks. Which of the following should the CSO conduct FIRST?
A. Survey threat feeds from analysts inside the same industry.
B. Purchase multiple threat feeds to ensure diversity and implement blocks for malicious traffic.
C. Conduct an internal audit against industry best practices to perform a gap analysis.
D. Deploy a UTM solution that receives frequent updates from a trusted industry vendor.
Answer: A
Q232. - (Topic 2)
An employee is performing a review of the organization’s security functions and noticed that there is some cross over responsibility between the IT security team and the financial fraud team. Which of the following security documents should be used to clarify the roles and responsibilities between the teams?
A. BPA
B. BIA
C. MOU
D. OLA
Answer: C
Q233. - (Topic 1)
A security firm is writing a response to an RFP from a customer that is building a new network based software product. The firm’s expertise is in penetration testing corporate networks. The RFP explicitly calls for all possible behaviors of the product to be tested, however, it does not specify any particular method to achieve this goal. Which of the following should be used to ensure the security and functionality of the product? (Select TWO).
A. Code review
B. Penetration testing
C. Grey box testing
D. Code signing
E. White box testing
Answer: A,E
Q234. - (Topic 3)
An administrator has a system hardening policy to only allow network access to certain services, to always use similar hardware, and to protect from unauthorized application configuration changes.
Which of the following technologies would help meet this policy requirement? (Select TWO).
A. Spam filter
B. Solid state drives
C. Management interface
D. Virtualization
E. Host firewall
Answer: D,E
Q235. - (Topic 3)
Which of the following should be used to identify overflow vulnerabilities?
A. Fuzzing
B. Input validation
C. Privilege escalation
D. Secure coding standards
Answer: A
Q236. - (Topic 2)
A user is suspected of engaging in potentially illegal activities. Law enforcement has requested that the user continue to operate on the network as normal. However, they would like to have a copy of any communications from the user involving certain key terms. Additionally, the law enforcement agency has requested that the user's ongoing communication be retained in the user's account for future investigations. Which of the following will BEST meet the goals of law enforcement?
A. Begin a chain-of-custody on for the user's communication. Next, place a legal hold on the user's email account.
B. Perform an e-discover using the applicable search terms. Next, back up the user's email for a future investigation.
C. Place a legal hold on the user's email account. Next, perform e-discovery searches to collect applicable emails.
D. Perform a back up of the user's email account. Next, export the applicable emails that match the search terms.
Answer: C
Q237. - (Topic 1)
A Chief Financial Officer (CFO) has raised concerns with the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) because money has been spent on IT security infrastructure, but corporate assets are still found to be vulnerable. The business recently funded a patch management product and SOE hardening initiative. A third party auditor reported findings against the business because some systems were missing patches. Which of the following statements BEST describes this situation?
A. The CFO is at fault because they are responsible for patching the systems and have already been given patch management and SOE hardening products.
B. The audit findings are invalid because remedial steps have already been applied to patch servers and the remediation takes time to complete.
C. The CISO has not selected the correct controls and the audit findings should be assigned to them instead of the CFO.
D. Security controls are generally never 100% effective and gaps should be explained to stakeholders and managed accordingly.
Answer: D
Q238. - (Topic 4)
Company XYZ has employed a consultant to perform a controls assessment of the HR system, backend business operations, and the SCADA system used in the factory. Which of the following correctly states the risk management options that the consultant should use during the assessment?
A. Risk reduction, risk sharing, risk retention, and risk acceptance.
B. Avoid, transfer, mitigate, and accept.
C. Risk likelihood, asset value, and threat level.
D. Calculate risk by determining technical likelihood and potential business impact.
Answer: B
Q239. - (Topic 4)
Continuous monitoring is a popular risk reduction technique in many large organizations with formal certification processes for IT projects. In order to implement continuous monitoring in an effective manner which of the following is correct?
A. Only security related alerts should be forwarded to the network team for resolution.
B. All logs must be centrally managed and access to the logs restricted only to data storage staff.
C. Logging must be set appropriately and alerts delivered to security staff in a timely manner.
D. Critical logs must be monitored hourly and adequate staff must be assigned to the network team.
Answer: C
Q240. - (Topic 5)
During a software development project review, the cryptographic engineer advises the project manager that security can be greatly improved by significantly slowing down the runtime of a hashing algorithm and increasing the entropy by passing the input and salt back during each iteration. Which of the following BEST describes what the engineer is trying to achieve?
A. Monoalphabetic cipher
B. Confusion
C. Root of trust
D. Key stretching
E. Diffusion
Answer: D