Cause all that matters here is passing the CompTIA comptia sy0 401 exam. Cause all that you need is a high score of sy0 401 braindump CompTIA Security+ Certification exam. The only one thing you need to do is downloading Pass4sure comptia sy0 401 exam study guides now. We will not let you down with our money-back guarantee.
♥♥ 2021 NEW RECOMMEND ♥♥
Free VCE & PDF File for CompTIA SY0-401 Real Exam (Full Version!)
★ Pass on Your First TRY ★ 100% Money Back Guarantee ★ Realistic Practice Exam Questions
Free Instant Download NEW SY0-401 Exam Dumps (PDF & VCE):
Available on:
http://www.surepassexam.com/SY0-401-exam-dumps.html
Q551. A security administrator has configured FTP in passive mode. Which of the following ports should the security administrator allow on the firewall by default?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
Answer: B
Explanation:
When establishing an FTP session, clients start a connection to an FTP server that listens on TCP port 21 by default.
Q552. Joe, the security administrator, has determined that one of his web servers is under attack. Which of the following can help determine where the attack originated from?
A. Capture system image
B. Record time offset
C. Screenshots
D. Network sniffing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Network sniffing is the process of capturing and analyzing the packets sent between systems on
the network. A network sniffer is also known as a Protocol Analyzer.
A Protocol Analyzer is a hardware device or more commonly a software program used to capture
network data communications sent between devices on a network. Capturing and analyzing the
packets sent to the web server will help determine the source IP address of the system sending
the packets.
Well known software protocol analyzers include Message Analyzer (formerly Network Monitor)
from Microsoft and Wireshark (formerly Ethereal).
Q553. Sara, a security analyst, is trying to prove to management what costs they could incur if their customer database was breached. This database contains 250 records with PII. Studies show that the cost per record for a breach is $300. The likelihood that their database would be breached in the next year is only 5%. Which of the following is the ALE that Sara should report to management for a security breach?
A. $1,500
B. $3,750
C. $15,000
D. $75,000
Answer: B
Explanation:
SLE × ARO = ALE, where SLE is equal to asset value (AV) times exposure factor (EF); and ARO
is the annualized rate of occurrence.
SLE = 250 x $300; ARO = 5%
$75000 x 0.05 = $3750
Q554. The datacenter manager is reviewing a problem with a humidity factor that is too low. Which of the following environmental problems may occur?
A. EMI emanations
B. Static electricity
C. Condensation
D. Dry-pipe fire suppression
Answer: B
Explanation:
Humidity control prevents the buildup of static electricity in the environment. If the humidity drops much below 50 percent, electronic components are extremely vulnerable to damage from electrostatic shock.
Q555. Which of the following concepts is used by digital signatures to ensure integrity of the data?
A. Non-repudiation
B. Hashing
C. Transport encryption
D. Key escrow
Answer: B
Explanation:
Most digital signature implementations also use a hash to verify that the message has not been altered, intentionally or accidently, in transit.
Q556. An IT security technician needs to establish host based security for company workstations. Which of the following will BEST meet this requirement?
A. Implement IIS hardening by restricting service accounts.
B. Implement database hardening by applying vendor guidelines.
C. Implement perimeter firewall rules to restrict access.
D. Implement OS hardening by applying GPOs.
Answer: D
Explanation: Hardening is the process of securing a system by reducing its surface of vulnerability. Reducing the surface of vulnerability typically includes removing or disabling unnecessary functions and features, removing or disabling unnecessary user accounts, disabling unnecessary protocols and ports, and disabling unnecessary services. This can be implemented using the native security features of an operating system, such as Group Policy Objects (GPOs).
Q557. Joe, the information security manager, is tasked with calculating risk and selecting controls to protect a new system. He has identified people, environmental conditions, and events that could affect the new system. Which of the following does he need to estimate NEXT in order to complete his risk calculations?
A. Vulnerabilities
B. Risk
C. Likelihood
D. Threats
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q558. Matt, an IT administrator, wants to protect a newly built server from zero day attacks. Which of the following would provide the BEST level of protection?
A. HIPS
B. Antivirus
C. NIDS
D. ACL
Answer: A
Explanation:
Intrusion prevention systems (IPS), also known as intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS), are network security appliances that monitor network and/or system activities for malicious activity. The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it.
Intrusion prevention systems are considered extensions of intrusion detection systems because they both monitor network traffic and/or system activities for malicious activity. The main differences are, unlike intrusion detection systems, intrusion prevention systems are placed in-line and are able to actively prevent/block intrusions that are detected. More specifically, IPS can take such actions as sending an alarm, dropping the malicious packets, resetting the connection and/or blocking the traffic from the offending IP address. An IPS can also correct Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC) errors, unfragment packet streams, prevent TCP sequencing issues, and clean up unwanted transport and network layer options. Host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) is an installed software package which monitors a single host for suspicious activity by analyzing events occurring within that host. A Host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) is an installed software package which monitors a single host for suspicious activity by analyzing events occurring within that host. As a zero-day attack is an unknown vulnerability (a vulnerability that does not have a fix or a patch to prevent it), the best defence would be an intrusion prevention system.
Q559. Which of the following fire suppression systems is MOST likely used in a datacenter?
A. FM-200
B. Dry-pipe
C. Wet-pipe
D. Vacuum
Answer: A
Explanation:
FM200 is a gas and the principle of a gas system is that it displaces the oxygen in the room, thereby removing this essential component of a fi re. in a data center is is the preferred choice of fire suppressant.
Q560. The security administrator notices a user logging into a corporate Unix server remotely as root.
Which of the following actions should the administrator take?
A. Create a firewall rule to block SSH
B. Delete the root account
C. Disable remote root logins
D. Ensure the root account has a strong password
Answer: C
Explanation: