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Q521. A network consists of various remote sites that connect back to two main locations. Pete, the security administrator, needs to block TELNET access into the network. Which of the following, by default, would be the BEST choice to accomplish this goal? 

A. Block port 23 on the L2 switch at each remote site 

B. Block port 23 on the network firewall 

C. Block port 25 on the L2 switch at each remote site 

D. Block port 25 on the network firewall 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Telnet is a terminal-emulation network application that supports remote connectivity for executing commands and running applications but doesn’t support transfer of fi les. Telnet uses TCP port 23. Because it’s a clear text protocol and service, it should be avoided and replaced with SSH. 


Q522. Matt, the network engineer, has been tasked with separating network traffic between virtual machines on a single hypervisor. Which of the following would he implement to BEST address this requirement? (Select TWO). 

A. Virtual switch 

B. NAT 

C. System partitioning 

D. Access-list 

E. Disable spanning tree 

F. VLAN 

Answer: A,F 

Explanation: 

A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. A virtual switch is a software application that allows communication between virtual machines. A combination of the two would best satisfy the question. 


Q523. A systems administrator has implemented PKI on a classified government network. In the event that a disconnect occurs from the primary CA, which of the following should be accessible locally from every site to ensure users with bad certificates cannot gain access to the network? 

A. A CRL 

B. Make the RA available 

C. A verification authority 

D. A redundant CA 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A certificate revocation list (CRL) is created and distributed to all CAs to revoke a certificate or 

key. 

By checking the CRL you can check if a particular certificate has been revoked. 


Q524. During which of the following phases of the Incident Response process should a security administrator define and implement general defense against malware? 

A. Lessons Learned 

B. Preparation 

C. Eradication 

D. Identification 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Incident response procedures involves: Preparation; Incident identification; Escalation and notification; Mitigation steps; Lessons learned; Reporting; Recover/reconstitution procedures; First responder; Incident isolation (Quarantine; Device removal); Data breach; Damage and loss control. It is important to stop malware before it ever gets hold of a system –thus you should know which malware is out there and take defensive measures - this means preparation to guard against malware infection should be done. 


Q525. One of the servers on the network stops responding due to lack of available memory. Server administrators did not have a clear definition of what action should have taken place based on the available memory. Which of the following would have BEST kept this incident from occurring? 

A. Set up a protocol analyzer 

B. Set up a performance baseline 

C. Review the systems monitor on a monthly basis 

D. Review the performance monitor on a monthly basis 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A performance baseline provides the input needed to design, implement, and support a secure network. The performance baseline would define the actions that should be performed on a server that is running low on memory. 


Q526. Which of the following protocols encapsulates an IP packet with an additional IP header? 

A. SFTP 

B. IPSec 

C. HTTPS 

D. SSL 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Authentication Header (AH) is a member of the IPsec protocol suite. AH operates directly on top of IP, using IP protocol number 51. 


Q527. Which of the following offerings typically allows the customer to apply operating system patches? 

A. Software as a service 

B. Public Clouds 

C. Cloud Based Storage 

D. Infrastructure as a service 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Cloud users install operating-system images and their application software on the cloud infrastructure to deploy their applications. In this model, the cloud user patches and maintains the operating systems and the application software. 


Q528. Which of the following ports is used to securely transfer files between remote UNIX systems? 

A. 21 

B. 22 

C. 69 

D. 445 

Answer:

Explanation: 

SCP copies files securely between hosts on a network. It uses SSH for data transfer, and uses the 

same authentication and provides the same security as SSH. Unlike RCP, SCP will ask for 

passwords or passphrases if they are needed for authentication. 

SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, 

and slogin, also use TCP port 22. 


Q529. A network inventory discovery application requires non-privileged access to all hosts on a network for inventory of installed applications. A service account is created by the network inventory discovery application for accessing all hosts. Which of the following is the MOST efficient method for granting the account non-privileged access to the hosts? 

A. Implement Group Policy to add the account to the users group on the hosts 

B. Add the account to the Domain Administrator group 

C. Add the account to the Users group on the hosts 

D. Implement Group Policy to add the account to the Power Users group on the hosts. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Group Policy is an infrastructure that allows you to implement specific configurations for users and computers. Group Policy settings are contained in Group Policy objects (GPOs), which are linked to the following Active Directory directory service containers: sites, domains, or organizational units (OUs). This means that if the GPO is linked to the domain, all Users groups in the domain will include the service account. 


Q530. Joe, a security administrator, is concerned with users tailgating into the restricted areas. Given a limited budget, which of the following would BEST assist Joe with detecting this activity? 

A. Place a full-time guard at the entrance to confirm user identity. 

B. Install a camera and DVR at the entrance to monitor access. 

C. Revoke all proximity badge access to make users justify access. 

D. Install a motion detector near the entrance. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Tailgating is a favorite method of gaining entry to electronically locked systems by following someone through the door they just unlocked. With a limited budget installing a camera and DVR at the entrance to monitor access to the restricted areas is the most feasible solution. The benefit of a camera (also known as closed-circuit television, or CCTV) is that it is always running and can record everything it sees, creating evidence that can be admissible in court if necessary.