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Q641. An organization recently switched from a cloud-based email solution to an in-house email server. The firewall needs to be modified to allow for sending and receiving email. Which of the following ports should be open on the firewall to allow for email traffic? (Select THREE).
A. TCP 22
B. TCP 23
C. TCP 25
D. TCP 53
E. TCP 110
F. TCP 143
G. TCP 445
Answer: C,E,F
Explanation:
Q642. The data security manager is notified that a client will be sending encrypted information on optical discs for import into the company database. Once imported, the information is backed up and the discs are no longer needed. Following the import, which of the following is the BEST action for the manager to take?
A. Wipe the discs and place into inventory for future use
B. Send the discs back to the client
C. Contract with a third party to shred the discs
D. Instruct employees to store the discs in a secure area
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q643. A new application needs to be deployed on a virtual server. The virtual server hosts a SQL server that is used by several employees.
Which of the following is the BEST approach for implementation of the new application on the virtual server?
A. Take a snapshot of the virtual server after installing the new application and store the snapshot in a secure location.
B. Generate a baseline report detailing all installed applications on the virtualized server after installing the new application.
C. Take a snapshot of the virtual server before installing the new application and store the snapshot in a secure location.
D. Create an exact copy of the virtual server and store the copy on an external hard drive after installing the new application.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Snapshots are backups of virtual machines that can be used to quickly recover from poor updates, and errors arising from newly installed applications. However, the snapshot should be taken before the application or update is installed.
Q644. A company is trying to limit the risk associated with the use of unapproved USB devices to copy documents. Which of the following would be the BEST technology control to use in this scenario?
A. Content filtering
B. IDS
C. Audit logs
D. DLP
Answer: D
Explanation:
Data loss prevention (DLP) is a strategy for making sure that end users do not send sensitive or critical information outside the corporate network. The term is also used to describe software products that help a network administrator control what data end users can transfer.
Q645. Matt, the IT Manager, wants to create a new network available to virtual servers on the same hypervisor, and does not want this network to be routable to the firewall. How could this BEST be accomplished?
A. Create a VLAN without a default gateway.
B. Remove the network from the routing table.
C. Create a virtual switch.
D. Commission a stand-alone switch.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Hyper-V Virtual Switch implements policy enforcement for security, isolation, and service levels.
Latest SY0-401 exam fees:
Q646. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) receives an anonymous threatening message that says “beware of the 1st of the year”. The CIO suspects the message may be from a former disgruntled employee planning an attack.
Which of the following should the CIO be concerned with?
A. Smurf Attack
B. Trojan
C. Logic bomb
D. Virus
Answer: C
Explanation:
A logic bomb is a piece of code intentionally inserted into a software system that will set off a malicious function when specified conditions are met. For example, a programmer may hide a piece of code that starts deleting files should they ever be terminated from the company. Software that is inherently malicious, such as viruses and worms, often contain logic bombs that execute a certain payload at a pre-defined time or when some other condition is met. This technique can be used by a virus or worm to gain momentum and spread before being noticed. Some viruses attack their host systems on specific dates, such as Friday the 13th or April Fool's Day. Trojans that activate on certain dates are often called "time bombs". To be considered a logic bomb, the payload should be unwanted and unknown to the user of the software. As an example, trial programs with code that disables certain functionality after a set time are not normally regarded as logic bombs.
Q647. Which of the following BEST describes a protective countermeasure for SQL injection?
A. Eliminating cross-site scripting vulnerabilities
B. Installing an IDS to monitor network traffic
C. Validating user input in web applications
D. Placing a firewall between the Internet and database servers
Answer: C
Explanation:
By validating user input and preventing special characters, we can prevent the injection of client-side scripting code. SQL injection is a code injection technique, used to attack data-driven applications, in which malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution (e.g. to dump the database contents to the attacker). SQL injection must exploit a security vulnerability in an application's software, for example, when user input is either incorrectly filtered for string literal escape characters embedded in SQL statements or user input is not strongly typed and unexpectedly executed. SQL injection is mostly known as an attack vector for websites but can be used to attack any type of SQL database.
Q648. A company’s security administrator wants to manage PKI for internal systems to help reduce costs. Which of the following is the FIRST step the security administrator should take?
A. Install a registration server.
B. Generate shared public and private keys.
C. Install a CA
D. Establish a key escrow policy.
Answer: C
Explanation:
PKI is a two-key, asymmetric system with four main components: certificate authority (CA), registration authority (RA), RSA (the encryption algorithm), and digital certificates. When you implement a PKI you should start by installing a CA.
Q649. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) wants to implement a redundant server location to which the production server images can be moved within 48 hours and services can be quickly restored, in case of a catastrophic failure of the primary datacenter’s HVAC. Which of the following can be implemented?
A. Cold site
B. Load balancing
C. Warm site
D. Hot site
Answer: C
Explanation:
Warm sites provide computer systems and compatible media capabilities. If a warm site is used, administrators and other staff will need to install and configure systems to resume operations. For most organizations, a warm site could be a remote office, a leased facility, or another organization with which yours has a reciprocal agreement.
Q650. An administrator is concerned that a company’s web server has not been patched. Which of the following would be the BEST assessment for the administrator to perform?
A. Vulnerability scan
B. Risk assessment
C. Virus scan
D. Network sniffer
Answer: A
Explanation:
A vulnerability scan is the process of scanning the network and/or I.T. infrastructure for threats and vulnerabilities. Vulnerabilities include computer systems that do not have the latest security patches installed. The threats and vulnerabilities are then evaluated in a risk assessment and the necessary actions taken to resolve and vulnerabilities. A vulnerability scan is the automated process of proactively identifying security vulnerabilities of computing systems in a network in order to determine if and where a system can be exploited and/or threatened. While public servers are important for communication and data transfer over the Internet, they open the door to potential security breaches by threat agents, such as malicious hackers. Vulnerability scanning employs software that seeks out security flaws based on a database of known flaws, testing systems for the occurrence of these flaws and generating a report of the findings that an individual or an enterprise can use to tighten the network's security. Vulnerability scanning typically refers to the scanning of systems that are connected to the Internet but can also refer to system audits on internal networks that are not connected to the Internet in order to assess the threat of rogue software or malicious employees in an enterprise.