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Q241. Which statement describes what it means if a router has an OSPF priority set to 0?
A. A router with the OSPF priority set to 0 is one that can participate in the election of a DR. It has the highest priority.
B. A router with the OSPF priority set to 0 is one that cannot participate in the election of a DR, but it can become a BDR
C. A router with the OSPF priority set to 0 is one that cannot participate in the election of a DR. It can become neither a DR nor a BDR.
D. A router with the OSPF priority set to 0 is one that cannot participate in the election of a BDR, but it can become a DR
Answer: C
Q242. Refer to the exhibit.
If the route to 10.1.1.1 is removed from the R2 routing table, which server becomes the master NTP server?
A. R2
B. the NTP server at 10.3.3.3
C. the NTP server at 10.4.4.4
D. the NTP server with the lowest stratum number
Answer: D
Explanation:
NTP uses a concept called “stratum” that defines how many NTP hops away a device is from an authoritative time source. For example, a device with stratum 1 is a very accurate device and might have an atomic clock attached to it. Another NTP server that is using this stratum 1 server to sync its own time would be a stratum 2 device because it’s one NTP hop further away from the source. When you configure multiple NTP servers, the client will prefer the NTP server with the lowest stratum value.
Reference: https://networklessons.com/network-services/cisco-network-time-protocol-ntp/
Q243. Which two statements about packet fragmentation on an IPv6 network are true? (Choose two.)
A. The fragment header is 64 bits long.
B. The identification field is 32 bits long.
C. The fragment header is 32 bits long.
D. The identification field is 64 bits long.
E. The MTU must be a minimum of 1280 bytes.
F. The fragment header is 48 bits long.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The fragment header is shown below, being 64 bits total with a 32 bit identification field:
Reference: http://www.openwall.com/presentations/IPv6/img24.html
Q244. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about the EEM applet configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. The EEM applet runs before the CLI command is executed.
B. The EEM applet runs after the CLI command is executed.
C. The EEM applet requires a case-insensitive response.
D. The running configuration is displayed only if the letter Y is entered at the CLI.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
sync Indicates whether the policy should be executed synchronously before the CLI command executes.
. If the yes keyword is specified, the policy will run synchronously with the CLI command.
. If the no keyword is specified, the policy will run asynchronously with the CLI command.
nocase
(Optional) Specifies case insensitive comparison.
Here we see that the sync knob was enabled so A is correct. However, C is not correct as the nocase argument was not used, so the applet is configured to display the config only if a capital Y is issued.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/eem/command/eem-cr-book/eem-cr-a2.html
Q245. Refer to the exhibit.
While troubleshooting high CPU utilization on one of your Cisco Catalyst switches, you find that the issue is due to excessive flooding that is caused by STP. What can you do to prevent this issue from happening again?
A. Disable STP completely on the switch.
B. Change the STP version to RSTP.
C. Configure PortFast on port-channel 1.
D. Configure UplinkFast on the switch.
E. Configure PortFast on interface Gi0/15.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Topology Changes (TC) should be a rare event in a well-configured network. When a link on a switch port goes up or down, there is eventually a TC, once the STP state of the port is changing to or from forwarding. When the port is flapping, this would cause repetitive TCs and flooding.
Ports with the STP portfast feature enabled will not cause TCs when going to or from the forwarding state. The configuration of portfast on all end-device ports (such as printers, PCs, and servers) should limit TCs to a low amount and is highly recommended.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/spanning-tree-protocol/28943-170.html
Q246. Which two options are benefits of EIGRP OTP? (Choose two.)
A. It allows EIGRP routers to peer across a service provider without the service provider involvement.
B. It allows the customer EIGRP domain to remain contiguous.
C. It requires only minimal support from the service provider.
D. It allows EIGRP neighbors to be discovered dynamically.
E. It fully supports multicast traffic.
F. It allows the administrator to use different autonomous system numbers per EIGRP domain.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
EIGRP Over the Top (OTP) allows EIGRP routers to peer across a service provider infrastructure without the SP’s involvement. In fact with OTP, the provider won’t see customer routes at all. EIGRP OTP acts as a provider-independent overlay that transports customer data between the customer’s routers. To the customer, the EIGRP domain is contiguous. A customer’s EIGRP router sits at the edge of the provider cloud, and peers with another EIGRP router a different location across the cloud. Learned routes feature a next hop of the customer router — not the provider. Good news for service providers is that customers can deploy EIGRP OTP with their involvement
Reference: http://ethancbanks.com/2013/08/01/an-overview-of-eigrp-over-the-top-otp/
Q247. Which two options are EIGRP route authentication encryption modes? (Choose two.)
A. MD5
B. HMAC-SHA-256bit
C. ESP-AES
D. HMAC-AES
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Packets exchanged between neighbors must be authenticated to ensure that a device accepts packets only from devices that have the same preshared authentication key. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) authentication is configurable on a per-interface basis; this means that packets exchanged between neighbors connected through an interface are authenticated. EIGRP supports message digest algorithm 5 (MD5) authentication to prevent the introduction of unauthorized information from unapproved sources. MD5 authentication is defined in RFC 1321. EIGRP also supports the Hashed Message Authentication Code-Secure Hash Algorithm-256 (HMAC-SHA-256) authentication method.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_eigrp/configuration/xe-3s/ire-xe-3s-book/ire-sha-256.html
Q248. Which three statements about GET VPN are true? (Choose three.)
A. It encrypts WAN traffic to increase data security and provide transport authentication.
B. It provides direct communication between sites, which reduces latency and jitter.
C. It can secure IP multicast, unicast, and broadcast group traffic.
D. It uses a centralized key server for membership control.
E. It enables the router to configure tunnels.
F. It maintains full-mesh connectivity for IP networks.
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
Cisco GET VPN Features and Benefits
Feature
Description and Benefit
Key Services
Key Servers are responsible for ensuring that keys are granted to authenticated and authorized devices only. They maintain the freshness of the key material, pushing re-key messages as well as security policies on a regular basis. The chief characteristics include:
. Key Servers can be located centrally, granting easy control over membership.
. Key Servers are not in the "line of fire" - encrypted application traffic flows directly between VPN end points without a bottleneck or an additional point of failure.
. Supports both local and global policies, applicable to all members in a group - such as "Permit any any", a policy to encrypt all traffic.
. Supports IP Multicast to distribute and manage keys, for improved efficiency; Unicast is also supported where IP Multicast is not possible.
Scalability and Throughput
. The full mesh nature of the solution allows devices to communicate directly with each other, without requiring transport through a central hub; this minimizes extra encrypts and decrypts at the hub router; it also helps minimize latency and jitter.
. Efficient handling of IP Multicast traffic by using the core network for replication can boost effective throughput further
Security
Provides data security and transport authentication, helping to meet security compliance and internal regulation by encrypting all WAN traffic
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/group-encrypted-transport-vpn/product_data_sheet0900aecd80582067.html
Q249. Refer to the exhibit.
All switches have default bridge priorities, and originate BPDUs with MAC addresses as indicated. The numbers shown are STP link metrics.
After STP converges, you discover that traffic from switch SWG toward switch SWD takes a less optimal path. What can you do to optimize the STP tree in this switched network?
A. Change the priority of switch SWA to a lower value than the default value.
B. Change the priority of switch SWB to a higher value than the default value.
C. Change the priority of switch SWG to a higher value than the default value.
D. Change the priority of switch SWD to a lower value than the default value.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In this topology, we see that all port paths and priorities are the same, so the lowest MAC address will be used to determine the best STP path. From SWG, SWE will be chosen as the next switch in the path because it has a lower MAC address than SWF. From SWE, traffic will go to SWC because it has a lower MAC address, and then to SWD, instead of going from SWE directly to SWD. If we lower the priority of SWD (lower means better with STP) then traffic will be sent directly to SWD.
Q250. For which three routing protocols can Cisco PfR provide direct route control? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF
B. IS-IS
C. BGP
D. EIGRP
E. static routing
F. ODR
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
Q. Can you elaborate more on the Parent Route and why it's so important to PfR?
A. Yes. For any route that PfR modifies or controls (BGP, Static, PIRO, EIGRP, PBR), having a Parent prefix in the routing table eliminates the possibility of a routing loop occurring. This is naturally a good thing to prevent in routed networks.
Reference: http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/Performance_Routing_FAQs#Route_Control