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NEW QUESTION 1
Which of the following types of audit constructs a risk profile for existing and new projects?
- A. Technological position audit
- B. Technological innovation process audit
- C. Innovative comparison audit
- D. Client/Server, Telecommunications, Intranets, and Extranets audits
Answer: B
Explanation:
Various authorities have created differing taxonomies to distinguish the various types of IT audits. Goodman & Lawless state that there are three specific systematic approaches to carry out an IT audit: Technological innovation process audit: This audit constructs a risk profile for existing and new projects. The audit will assess the length and depth of the company's experience in its chosen technologies, as well as its presence in relevant markets, the organization of each project, and the structure of the portion of the industry that deals with this project or product, organization and industry structure. Innovative comparison audit: This audit is an analysis of the innovative abilities of the company being audited in comparison to its competitors. This requires examination of company's research and development facilities, as well as its track record in actually producing new products. Technological position audit: This audit reviews the technologies that the business currently has and that it needs to add. Technologies are characterized as being either "base", "key", "pacing", or "emerging". Answer D is incorrect. These are the audits to verify that controls are in place on the client (computer receiving services), server, and on the network connecting the clients and servers.
NEW QUESTION 2
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He successfully performs a brute force attack on the We-are-secure server. Now, he suggests some countermeasures to avoid such brute force attacks on the We-are-secure server. Which of the following are countermeasures against a brute force attack?
- A. The site should use CAPTCHA after a specific number of failed login attempts.
- B. The site should increase the encryption key length of the password.
- C. The site should restrict the number of login attempts to only three times.
- D. The site should force its users to change their passwords from time to time.
Answer: AC
Explanation:
Using CAPTCHA or restricting the number of login attempts are good countermeasures against a brute force attack.
NEW QUESTION 3
Which of the following processes are involved under the COBIT framework?
- A. Managing the IT workforce.
- B. Correcting all risk issues.
- C. Conducting IT risk assessments.
- D. Developing a strategic plan.
Answer: ACD
Explanation:
The Control Objectives for Information and related Technology (COBIT) is a set of best practices (framework) for information technology (IT) management, which provides managers, auditors, and IT users with a set of generally accepted measures, indicators, processes and best practices to assist them in maximizing the benefits derived through the use of information technology and developing appropriate IT governance and control in a company. It has the following 11 processes: Developing a strategic plan. Articulating the information architecture. Finding an optimal stage between the IT and the organization's strategy. Designing the IT function to match the organization's needs. Maximizing the return of the IT investment. Communicating IT policies to the user's community. Managing the IT workforce. Obeying external regulations, laws, and contracts. Conducting IT risk assessments. Maintaining a high-quality systems-development process. Incorporating sound project-management techniques. Answer B is incorrect. Correcting all risk issues does not come under auditing processes.
NEW QUESTION 4
You work as a Network Administrator for Blue Well Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based routed network. Two segments have been configured on the network as shown below:
One day, the switch in Subnet B fails. What will happen?
- A. Communication between the two subnets will be affected.
- B. The whole network will collapse.
- C. Workstations on Subnet A will become offline
- D. Workstations on Subnet B will become offline.
Answer: AD
Explanation:
According to the question, the network is a routed network where two segments have been divided and each segment has a switch. These switches are connected to a common router. All workstations in a segment are connected to their respective subnet's switches. Failure of the switch in Subnet B will make all workstations connected to it offline. Moreover, communication between the two subnets will be affected, as there will be no link to connect to Subnet B.
NEW QUESTION 5
Which of the following is Microsoft's implementation of the file and application server for the Internet and private intranets?
- A. Internet Server Service (ISS)
- B. Internet Server (IS)
- C. WWW Server (WWWS)
- D. Internet Information Server (IIS)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Microsoft Internet Information Server (IIS) is a WeA, Bpplication server for the Internet and private intranets. IIS receives requests from users on the network using the World Wide Web (WWW) service and transmits information using the Hypertext Transport Protocol (HTTP). IIS uses Microsoft Transaction Server (MTS) to provide security, performance, and scalability with server side packages.
NEW QUESTION 6
You work as the Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You are a root user on the Red Hat operating system. You want to keep an eye on the system log file /var/adm/messages. Which of the following commands should you use to read the file in real time?
- A. tail -n 3 /var/adm/messages
- B. tail -f /var/adm/messages
- C. cat /var/adm/messages
- D. tail /var/adm/messages
Answer: B
Explanation:
Using the -f option causes tail to continue to display the file in real time, showing added lines to the end of the file as they occur.
NEW QUESTION 7
Which of the following is a technique for creating Internet maps? (Choose two)
- A. AS PATH Inference
- B. Object Relational Mapping
- C. Active Probing
- D. Network Quota
Answer: AC
Explanation:
There are two prominent techniques used today for creating Internet maps: Active probing: It is the first works on the data plane of the Internet and is called active probing. It is used to infer Internet topology based on router adjacencies. AS PATH Inference: It is the second works on the control plane and infers autonomous system connectivity based on BGP data.
NEW QUESTION 8
Which of the following statements about data integrity of a container are true? (Choose two)
- A. It ensures that a hacker cannot alter the contents of an HTTP message while it is in transit from a container to a client.
- B. Data integrity ensures that information is made available to users who are authorized to access it.
- C. Data integrity ensures that information has not been modified by a third party while it is in transit.
- D. It ensures that an eavesdropper cannot read an HTTP message being sent from a client to a container.
Answer: AC
Explanation:
Data integrity ensures that information has not been modified, altered, or destroyed by a third party while it is in transit. Data integrity ensures that the data received is same as the data that was sent. Moreover, no one can tamper with the data during transmission from source to destination.
It also ensures that a hacker cannot alter the contents of an HTTP message while it is in transit from the container to the client. This will be accomplished through the use of HTTPS. The HTTPS stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol over Secure Socket Layer. The HTTPS encrypts and decrypts the page requests and page information between the client browser and the Web server using a Secure Socket Layer. Answer D is incorrect. This answer option describes confidentiality. Answer B is incorrect. This answer option also describes confidentiality.
NEW QUESTION 9
In a network, a data packet is received by a router for transmitting it to another network. For forwarding the packet to the other available networks, the router is configured with a static or a dynamic route. What are the benefits of using a static route?
- A. It is a fault tolerant path.
- B. It reduces load on routers, as no complex routing calculations are required.
- C. It reduces bandwidth usage, as there is no excessive router traffic.
- D. It provides precise control over the routes that packets will take across the network.
Answer: BCD
Explanation:
Static routing is a data communication concept that describes a way to configure path selection of routers in computer networks. This is achieved by manually adding routes to the routing table. However, when there is a change in the network or a failure occurs between two statically defined nodes, traffic will not be rerouted. Static routing is beneficial in many ways: Precise control over the routes that a packet will take across the network Reduced load on the routers, as no complex routing calculations are required Reduced bandwidth use, as there is no excessive router traffic. Easy to configure in small networks Answer A is incorrect. This is a property of a dynamic route. A static route cannot choose the best path. It can only choose the paths that are manually entered.
When there is a change in the network or a failure occurs between two statically defined nodes, traffic will not be rerouted.
NEW QUESTION 10
Network mapping provides a security testing team with a blueprint of the organization. Which of the following steps is NOT a part of manual network mapping?
- A. Gathering private and public IP addresses
- B. Collecting employees information
- C. Performing Neotracerouting
- D. Banner grabbing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Using automated tools, such as NeoTraceroute, for mapping a network is a part of automated network mapping. part of manual network mapping. Network mapping is the process of providing a blueprint of the organization to a security testing team. There are two ways of performing network mapping: Manual Mapping: In manual mapping, a hacker gathers information to create a matrix that contains the domain name information, IP addresses of the network, DNS servers, employee information, company location, phone numbers, yearly earnings, recently acquired organizations, email addresses, publicly available IP address ranges, open ports, wireless access points, modem lines, and banner grabbing details. Automated Mapping: In automated mapping, a hacker uses any automated tool to gather information about the network. There are many tools for this purpose, such as NeoTrace, Visual traceroute, Cheops, Cheops-ng, etc. The only advantage of automated mapping is that it is very fast and hence it may generate erroneous results.
NEW QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements are true about the Enum tool?
- A. It uses NULL and User sessions to retrieve user lists, machine lists, LSA policy information, etc.
- B. It is capable of performing brute force and dictionary attacks on individual accounts of Windows NT/2000.
- C. One of the countermeasures against the Enum tool is to disable TCP port 139/445.
- D. It is a console-based Win32 information enumeration utility.
Answer: ABCD
Explanation:
Enum is a console-based Win32 information enumeration utility. It uses null sessions to retrieve user lists, machine lists, share lists, name lists, group and member lists, passwords, and LSA policy information. It is also capable of performing brute force and dictionary attacks on individual accounts. Since the Enum tool works on the NetBIOS NULL sessions, disabling the NetBIOS port can be a good countermeasure against the Enum tool.
NEW QUESTION 12
Mark works as a Web Developer for XYZ CORP. He is developing a Web site for the company. The Manager of the company requires Mark to use tables instead of frames in the Web site. What is the major advantage that a table-structured Web site has over a frame-structured Web site?
- A. Easy maintenance
- B. Speed
- C. Better navigation
- D. Capability of being bookmarked or added to the Favorites folder
Answer: D
Explanation:
The major advantage that a table-structured Web site has over a frame- structured Web site is that users can bookmark the pages of a table- structured Web site, whereas pages of a frame-structured Web site cannot be bookmarked or added to the Favorites folder. Non-frame Web sites also give better results with search engines. Better navigation: Web pages can be divided into multiple frames and each frame can display a separate Web page. It helps in providing better and consistent navigation. Easy maintenance: Fixed elements, such as a navigation link and company logo page, can be created once and used with all the other pages. Therefore, any change in these pages is required to be made only once.
NEW QUESTION 13
John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to forward all the kernel messages to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1. Which of the following changes will he perform in the syslog.conf file to accomplish the task?
- A. kern.* @192.168.0.1
- B. !*.* @192.168.0.1
- C. !kern.* @192.168.0.1
- D. *.* @192.168.0.1
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the scenario, John will make the following entry in the syslog.conf file to forward all the kernel messages to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1: kern.* @192.168.0.1 Answer D is incorrect. This entry will forward all the messages to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1. Answer B is incorrect. This entry will not forward any message to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1. Answer C is incorrect. This entry will not forward any kernel message to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1.
NEW QUESTION 14
You are concerned about possible hackers doing penetration testing on your network as a prelude to an attack. What would be most helpful to you in finding out if this is occurring?
- A. Examining your antivirus logs
- B. Examining your domain controller server logs
- C. Examining your firewall logs
- D. Examining your DNS Server logs
Answer: C
Explanation:
Firewall logs will show all incoming and outgoing traffic. By examining those logs, you can do port scans and use other penetration testing tools that have been used on your firewall.
NEW QUESTION 15
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to perform a stealth scan to discover open ports and applications running on the We-are-secure server. For this purpose, he wants to initiate scanning with the IP address of any third party. Which of the following scanning techniques will John use to accomplish his task?
- A. UDP
- B. RPC
- C. IDLE
- D. TCP SYN/ACK
Answer: C
Explanation:
The IDLE scan is initiated with the IP address of a third party. Hence, it becomes a stealth scan. Since the IDLE scan uses the IP address of a third party, it becomes quite impossible to detect the hacker. Answer B is incorrect. The RPC (Remote Procedure Call) scan is used to find the RPC applications. After getting the RPC application port with the help of another port scanner, RPC port scanner sends a null RPC packet to all the RPC service ports, which are open into the target system. Answer A is incorrect. In UDP port scanning, a UDP packet is sent to each port of the target system. If the remote port is closed, the server replies that the remote port is unreachable. If the remote Port is open, no such error is generated. Many firewalls block the TCP port scanning, at that time the UDP port scanning may be useful. Certain IDS and firewalls can detect UDP port scanning easily. Answer D is incorrect. TCP SYN scanning is also known as half-open scanning because in this a full TCP connection is never opened. The steps of TCP SYN scanning are as follows:
* 1. The attacker sends SYN packet to the target port.
* 2. If the port is open, the attacker receives SYN/ACK message.
* 3. Now the attacker breaks the connection by sending an RST packet.
* 4. If the RST packet is received, it indicates that the port is closed. This type of scanning is hard to trace because the attacker never establishes a full 3-way handshake connection and most sites do not create a log of incomplete TCP connections.
NEW QUESTION 16
You want to record auditing information in the SYS.AUD$ table, and also want to record SQL bind variables as well as the SQL text in the audit trail. Which of the following statements will accomplish this task?
- A. ALTER SYSTEM SET AUDIT_TRAIL = DB, XML SCOPE=SPFILE;
- B. ALTER SYSTEM SET AUDIT_TRAIL = 'DB, EXTENDED' SCOPE=SPFILE;
- C. ALTER SYSTEM SET AUDIT_TRAIL = 'DB','EXTENDED' SCOPE=SPFILE;
- D. ALTER SYSTEM SET AUDIT_TRAIL = DB, EXTENDED SCOPE=SPFILE;
- E. ALTER SYSTEM SET AUDIT_FILE_DEST = 'DB, EXTENDED' SCOPE=SPFILE;
- F. ALTER SYSTEM SET AUDIT_TRAIL = DB, EXTENDED SCOPE=BOTH;
Answer: CD
Explanation:
The initialization parameter AUDIT_TRAIL is used to specify the kind of auditing that needs to be performed, as well as the destination where it will be performed. There are three basic values for auditing that are DB, OS, and XML. Specifying DB sends all audit rows to the table SYS.AUD$, OS sends the audit rows to an operating system file, and XML sends the audit rows to an operating system file in the XML format. The location for external audit rows is specified by the AUDIT_FILE_DEST parameter. By adding the EXTENDED parameter for either DB or XML auditing, all SQL bind variables and the text of all SQL commands are included in the audit row. EXTENDED cannot be specified for OS auditing. In addition, NONE can be specified as the value for AUDIT_TRAIL, which will disable all auditing. Answer B is incorrect. DB, EXTENDED in single quotes cannot be specified when setting the AUDIT_TRAIL parameter. Answer E is incorrect. AUDIT_TRAIL must be set to specify the type of auditing. AUDIT_FILE_DEST is used to specify the operating system location for either OS or XML auditing. Answer A is incorrect. DB and XML auditing cannot be specified at the same time and the database must be restarted for the auditing change to go into effect.
NEW QUESTION 17
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