Exam Code: comptia security+ sy0 401 pdf (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification
Certification Provider: CompTIA
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Q561. A quality assurance analyst is reviewing a new software product for security, and has complete access to the code and data structures used by the developers. This is an example of which of the following types of testing?
A. Black box
B. Penetration
C. Gray box
D. White box
Answer: D
Explanation:
White box testing is the process of testing an application when you have detailed knowledge of the inner workings of the application. White-box testing (also known as clear box testing, glass box testing, transparent box testing, and structural testing) is a method of testing software that tests internal structures or workings of an application, as opposed to its functionality (i.e. black-box testing). In white-box testing an internal perspective of the system, as well as programming skills, are used to design test cases. The tester chooses inputs to exercise paths through the code and determine the appropriate outputs. This is analogous to testing nodes in a circuit, e.g. in-circuit testing (ICT). White-box testing can be applied at the unit, integration and system levels of the software testing process. Although traditional testers tended to think of white-box testing as being done at the unit level, it is used for integration and system testing more frequently today. It can test paths within a unit, paths between units during integration, and between subsystems during a system–level test.
Q562. Joe, a technician, is tasked with finding a way to test operating system patches for a wide variety of servers before deployment to the production environment while utilizing a limited amount of hardware resources. Which of the following would provide the BEST environment for performing this testing?
A. OS hardening
B. Application control
C. Virtualization
D. Sandboxing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q563. Which of the following ciphers would be BEST used to encrypt streaming video?
A. RSA
B. RC4
C. SHA1 D. 3DES
Answer: B
Explanation:
In cryptography, RC4 is the most widely used software stream cipher and is used in popular Internet protocols such as Transport Layer Security (TLS). While remarkable for its simplicity and speed in software, RC4 has weaknesses that argue against its use in new systems. It is especially vulnerable when the beginning of the output keystream is not discarded, or when nonrandom or related keys are used; some ways of using RC4 can lead to very insecure protocols such as WEP.
Because RC4 is a stream cipher, it is more malleable than common block ciphers. If not used together with a strong message authentication code (MAC), then encryption is vulnerable to a bit-flipping attack. The cipher is also vulnerable to a stream cipher attack if not implemented correctly. Furthermore, inadvertent double encryption of a message with the same key may accidentally output plaintext rather than ciphertext because the involutory nature of the XOR function would result in the second operation reversing the first. It is noteworthy, however, that RC4, being a stream cipher, was for a period of time the only common cipher that was immune to the 2011 BEAST attack on TLS 1.0. The attack exploits a known weakness in the way cipher block chaining mode is used with all of the other ciphers supported by TLS 1.0, which are all block ciphers.
Q564. NO: 36
Sara, a security technician, has received notice that a vendor coming in for a presentation will require access to a server outside of the network. Currently, users are only able to access remote sites through a VPN connection. How could Sara BEST accommodate the vendor?
A. Allow incoming IPSec traffic into the vendor’s IP address.
B. Set up a VPN account for the vendor, allowing access to the remote site.
C. Turn off the firewall while the vendor is in the office, allowing access to the remote site.
D. Write a firewall rule to allow the vendor to have access to the remote site.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Firewall rules are used to define what traffic is able pass between the firewall and the internal network. Firewall rules block the connection, allow the connection, or allow the connection only if it is secured. Firewall rules can be applied to inbound traffic or outbound traffic and any type of network.
Q565. The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) receives a suspicious voice mail warning of credit card fraud. No one else received the voice mail. Which of the following BEST describes this attack?
A. Whaling
B. Vishing
C. Spear phishing
D. Impersonation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q566. Which of the following uses port 22 by default? (Select THREE).
A. SSH
B. SSL
C. TLS
D. SFTP
E. SCP
F. FTPS
G. SMTP
H. SNMP
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22.
Q567. A security administrator plans on replacing a critical business application in five years. Recently, there was a security flaw discovered in the application that will cause the IT department to manually re-enable user accounts each month at a cost of $2,000. Patching the application today would cost $140,000 and take two months to implement. Which of the following should the security administrator do in regards to the application?
A. Avoid the risk to the user base allowing them to re-enable their own accounts
B. Mitigate the risk by patching the application to increase security and saving money
C. Transfer the risk replacing the application now instead of in five years
D. Accept the risk and continue to enable the accounts each month saving money
Answer: D
Explanation:
This is a risk acceptance measure that has to be implemented since the cost of patching would be too high compared to the cost to keep the system going as is. Risk acceptance is often the choice you must make when the cost of implementing any of the other four choices (i.e. risk deterrence, mitigation, transference or avoidance) exceeds the value of the harm that would occur if the risk came to fruition.
Q568. Ann, the network administrator, has learned from the helpdesk that employees are accessing the wireless network without entering their domain credentials upon connection. Once the connection is made, they cannot reach any internal resources, while wired network connections operate smoothly. Which of the following is MOST likely occurring?
A. A user has plugged in a personal access point at their desk to connect to the network wirelessly.
B. The company is currently experiencing an attack on their internal DNS servers.
C. The company’s WEP encryption has been compromised and WPA2 needs to be implemented instead.
D. An attacker has installed an access point nearby in an attempt to capture company information.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The question implies that users should be required to enter their domain credentials upon connection to the wireless network. The fact that they are connecting to a wireless network without being prompted for their domain credentials and they are unable to access network resources suggests they are connecting to a rogue wireless network. A rogue access point is a wireless access point that has either been installed on a secure company network without explicit authorization from a local network administrator, or has been created to allow a hacker to conduct a man-in-the-middle attack. Rogue access points of the first kind can pose a security threat to large organizations with many employees, because anyone with access to the premises can install (maliciously or non-maliciously) an inexpensive wireless router that can potentially allow access to a secure network to unauthorized parties. Rogue access points of the second kind target networks that do not employ mutual authentication (client-server server-client) and may be used in conjunction with a rogue RADIUS server, depending on security configuration of the target network. To prevent the installation of rogue access points, organizations can install wireless intrusion prevention systems to monitor the radio spectrum for unauthorized access points.
Q569. A program has been discovered that infects a critical Windows system executable and stays dormant in memory. When a Windows mobile phone is connected to the host, the program infects the phone’s boot loader and continues to target additional Windows PCs or phones. Which of the following malware categories BEST describes this program?
A. Zero-day
B. Trojan
C. Virus
D. Rootkit
Answer: C
Explanation:
A computer virus is a program or piece of code that is loaded onto your computer without your knowledge and runs against your wishes. Viruses can also replicate themselves. All computer viruses are man-made. A simple virus that can make a copy of itself over and over again is relatively easy to produce. Even such a simple virus is dangerous because it will quickly use all available memory and bring the system to a halt. An even more dangerous type of virus is one capable of transmitting itself across networks and bypassing security systems. Some people distinguish between general viruses and worms. A worm is a special type of virus that can replicate itself and use memory, but cannot attach itself to other programs.
Q570. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of users being unable to verify a single user’s email signature and that user being unable to decrypt sent messages?
A. Unmatched key pairs
B. Corrupt key escrow
C. Weak public key
D. Weak private key
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a PKI the sender encrypts the data using the receiver's public key. The receiver decrypts the data using his own private key. The sender and receiver must have a matching key in order for the receiver to decrypt the data.