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Q201. Refer to the exhibit.
How can Router X in AS70000 peer with Router Y in AS65000, in case Router Y supports only 2-byte ASNs?
A. Router X should be configured with a remove-private-as command, because this will establish the peering session with a random private 2-byte ASN.
B. It is not possible. Router Y must be upgraded to an image that supports 4-byte ASN.
C. Router Y should be configured with a 4-byte AS using the local-as command.
D. Router X should be configured with a 2-byte AS using the local-as command.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Since router Y does not support 4-byte ASN,s it will not understand any AS numbers larger than 65535, so router X should use the local-as command on the peering statement to router Y to so that it sends in a 2-byte ASN to router Y.
Q202. Which two options are mandatory components of a multiprotocol BGP VPN-IPv4 address? (Choose two.)
A. a route distinguisher
B. an IPv4 address
C. a route target
D. an MPLS label
E. a system ID
F. an area ID
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The IP prefix is a member of the IPv4 address family. After the PE device learns the IP prefix, the PE converts it into a VPN-IPv4 prefix by combining it with an 8-byte route distinguisher (RD). The generated prefix is a member of the VPN-IPv4 address family. It uniquely identifies the customer address, even if the customer site is using globally nonunique (unregistered private) IP addresses. The route distinguisher used to generate the VPN-IPv4 prefix is specified by a configuration command associated with the virtual routing and forwarding (VRF) instance on the PE device.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_l3_vpns/configuration/15-mt/mp-l3-vpns-15-mt-book/mp-bgp-mpls-vpn.html
Q203. Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement is true?
A. There is an MPLS network that is running 6PE, and the ingress PE router has no mpls ip propagate-ttl.
B. There is an MPLS network that is running 6VPE, and the ingress PE router has no mpls ip propagate-ttl.
C. There is an MPLS network that is running 6PE or 6VPE, and the ingress PE router has mpls ip propagate-ttl.
D. There is an MPLS network that is running 6PE, and the ingress PE router has mpls ip propagate-ttl.
E. There is an MPLS network that is running 6VPE, and the ingress PE router has mpls ip propagate-ttl.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The second hop shows and IPV6 address over MPLS, so we know that there is an MPLS network running 6PE or 6VPE. And because the second and third hops show up in the traceroute. Then TTL is being propagated because if the “no ip propagate-ttl” command was used these devices would be hidden in the traceroute.
Q204. Which two statements about OSPF are true? (Choose two.)
A. External type 2 routes are preferred over interarea routes.
B. Intra-area routes are preferred over interarea routes.
C. External type 1 routes are preferred over external type 2 routes.
D. External type 1 routes are preferred over intra-area routes.
E. External type 2 routes are preferred over external type 1 routes.
Answer: B,C
Q205. Which option is the result if two adjacent routers are configured for OSPF with different process IDs?
A. The routers are unable to establish an adjacency.
B. The routers establish an adjacency, but route exchange fails.
C. The routers establish an adjacency and exchange routes, but the routes are unreachable.
D. The routers establish an adjacency and exchange routes, and the routes are reachable.
Answer: D
Q206. Which two options are disadvantages of a commingled dual-tier WAN rate-based Ethernet circuit? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the maintenance of separate chassis.
B. It has limited scalability.
C. It requires additional CPU resources at the subscriber end.
D. It is more difficult to secure.
E. It can increase the likelihood of packet drops.
Answer: A,E
Q207. Which two statements about route summarization are true? (Choose two.)
A. RIP, IGRP, and EIGRP can automatically summarize routing information at network address boundaries.
B. EIGRP can automatically summarize external routes.
C. The area range command can aggregate addresses on the ASBR.
D. The summary-address command under the router process configures manual summarization on RIPv2 devices.
E. The ip classless command enables classful protocols to select a default route to an unknown subnet on a network with other known subnets.
Answer: A,E
Q208. Which option describes the purpose of the PPP endpoint discriminator?
A. It identifies the maximum payload packet.
B. It notifies the peer that it prefers 12-bit sequence numbers.
C. It identifies the system attached to the link.
D. It determines whether a loopback is on the link.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In situations in which many clients use the same username to initiate an MP connection, or when interoperating with non-Cisco routers, you need to control the order in which the bundle name is created. It is necessary to configure the access server to create a bundle name based on the endpoint discriminator first, the username second, or both. The endpoint discriminator identifies the system transmitting the packet and advises the network access server (NAS) that the peer on this link could be the same as the peer on another existing link. Because every client has a unique endpoint discriminator, only multiple links from the same client are bundled into a single unique MP connection. For example, consider when two PC clients initiate a multilink connection to an access server using the same username. If the multilink bundle name is established based on the endpoint discriminator first, then on the username or on both, the NAS can accurately bundle the links from each client using the endpoint discriminator as a bundle name. This bundle name is unique to the peer system transmitting the packet.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wan/point-to-point-protocol-ppp/10238-mppp-bundle-name.html
Q209. Which two statements about the default SNMP configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. The SNMP agent is enabled.
B. The SNMP trap receiver is configured.
C. All SNMP notification types are sent.
D. SNMPv1 is the default version.
E. SNMPv3 is the default version.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Default SNMP Configuration
Feature
Default Setting
SNMP agent
Enabled SNMP community strings
Read-Only: Public
Read-WritE. Private
Read-Write-all: Secret
SNMP trap receiver
None configured
SNMP traps
None enabled
SNMP version
If no version keyword is present, the default is version 1.
SNMPv3 authentication
If no keyword is entered, the default is the noauth (noAuthNoPriv) security level.
SNMP notification type
If no type is specified, all notifications are sent.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2950/software/release/12-1_19_ea1/configuration/guide/2950scg/swsnmp.html
Q210. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two possible network conditions can you infer from this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. The authentication parameters on R1 and R2 are mismatched.
B. R1 is using the default NTP source configuration.
C. R1 and R2 have established an NTP session.
D. R2 is configured as the NTP master with a stratum of 7.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Answer A. The NTP associations are not synced, it is only listed as a candidate because it was configured. Routing is not the issue, so it must be mismatched authentication parameters.
Answer B. NTP sets the source IP address for all NTP packets based on the address of the interface through which the NTP packets are sent. You can configure NTP to use a specific source IP address.