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2021 Apr 400-101 rapidshare

Q131. Which statement describes the BGP add-path feature? 

A. It allows for installing multiple IBGP and EBGP routes in the routing table. 

B. It allows a network engineer to override the selected BGP path with an additional path created in the config. 

C. It allows BGP to provide backup paths to the routing table for quicker convergence. 

D. It allows multiple paths for the same prefix to be advertised. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

BGP routers and route reflectors (RRs) propagate only their best path over their sessions. The advertisement of a prefix replaces the previous announcement of that prefix (this behavior is known as an implicit withdraw). The implicit withdraw can achieve better scaling, but at the cost of path diversity. Path hiding can prevent efficient use of BGP multipath, prevent hitless planned maintenance, and can lead to MED oscillations and suboptimal hot-potato routing. Upon nexthop failures, path hiding also inhibits fast and local recovery because the network has to wait for BGP control plane convergence to restore traffic. The BGP Additional Paths feature provides a generic way of offering path diversity; the Best External or Best Internal features offer path diversity only in limited scenarios. The BGP Additional Paths feature provides a way for multiple paths for the same prefix to be advertised without the new paths implicitly replacing the previous paths. Thus, path diversity is achieved instead of path hiding. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_bgp/configuration/xe-3s/irg-xe-3s-book/irg-additional-paths.html 


Q132. Which feature of Cisco IOS XE Software allows for platform-independent code abstraction? 

A. its security 

B. Common Management Enabling Technology 

C. the Linux-based environment 

D. its modularity 

Answer:


Q133. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which additional information must you specify in this configuration to capture NetFlow traffic? 

A. ingress or egress traffic 

B. the number of cache entries 

C. the flow cache active timeout 

D. the flow cache inactive timeout 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Configuring NetFlow 

Perform the following task to enable NetFlow on an interface. SUMMARY STEPS 

1. enable 

2. configure terminal 

3. interface type number 

4. ip flow {ingress | egress} 

5. exit 

6. Repeat Steps 3 through 5 to enable NetFlow on other interfaces. 

7. end 

DETAILED STEPS 

Command or Action 

Purpose 

Step 1 

enable 

Example: 

Router> enable Enables privileged EXEC mode. . 

Enter your password if prompted. 

Step 2 

configure terminal Example: 

........

Example: 

Router(config)# interface ethernet 0/0 

Specifies the interface that you want to enable NetFlow on and enters interface configuration mode. 

Step 4 

ip flow {ingress | egress} 

Example: 

Router(config-if)# ip flow ingress 

Enables NetFlow on the interface. 

. ingress—Captures traffic that is being received by the interface 

. egress—Captures traffic that is being transmitted by the interface 

Step 5 

exit 

Example: 

Router(config-if)# exit 

(Optional) Exits interface configuration mode and enters global configuration mode. 

Note 

You need to use this command only if you want to enable NetFlow on another interface. 

Step 6 

Repeat Steps 3 through 5 to enable NetFlow on other interfaces. 

This step is optional. 

Step 7 

end 

Example: 

Router(config-if)# end Exits the current configuration mode and returns to privileged EXEC mod 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/netflow/configuration/guide/12_2sr/nf_12_2sr_boo k/cfg_nflow_data_expt.html 


Q134. Refer to the exhibit. 

This network is configured with PIM, and the RPF check has failed toward the multicast source. Which two configuration changes must you make to router R3 to enable the RPF check to pass? (Choose two.) 

A. Configure a static multicast route to the multicast source through the tunnel interface. 

B. Configure a static multicast route to the multicast source LAN through the tunnel interface. 

C. Configure a static multicast route to the multicast source LAN through the Ethernet interface. 

D. Remove the command ip prim bidir-enable from the R3 configuration. 

Answer: A,B 


Q135. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which action will solve the error state of this interface when connecting a host behind a Cisco IP phone? 

A. Configure dot1x-port control auto on this interface 

B. Enable errdisable recovery for security violation errors 

C. Enable port security on this interface 

D. Configure multidomain authentication on this interface 

Answer:

Explanation: 

In single-host mode, a security violation is triggered when more than one device are detected on the data vlan. In multidomain authentication mode, a security violation is triggered when more than one device are detected on the data or voice VLAN. Here we see that single host mode is being used, not multidomain mode. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/50sg/configuration/guide/Wrapper-46SG/dot1x.html#wp1309041 


Update 400-101 test questions:

Q136. Which switching technology can be used to solve reliability problems in a switched network? 

A. fragment-free mode 

B. cut-through mode 

C. check mode 

D. store-and-forward mode 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Characteristics of Store-and-Forward Ethernet Switching 

This section provides an overview of the functions and features of store-and-forward Ethernet switches. 

Error Checking 

Figure 1 shows a store-and-forward switch receiving an Ethernet frame in its entirety. At the end of that frame, the switch will compare the last field of the datagram against its own frame-check-sequence (FCS) calculations, to help ensure that the packet is free of physical and data-link errors. The switch then performs the forwarding process. Whereas a store-and-forward switch solves reliability issues by dropping invalid packets, cut-through devices forward them because they do not get a chance to evaluate the FCS before transmitting the packet. 

Figure 1. Ethernet Frame Entering a Store-and-Forward Bridge or Switch (from Left to Right) 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-5020-switch/white_paper_c11-465436.html 


Q137. Which two pieces of information does RTCP use to inform endpoint devices about the RTP flow? (Choose two.) 

A. the transmitted octet 

B. the lost packet count 

C. session control function provisioning information 

D. the CNAME for session participants 

E. the authentication method 

F. MTU size changes in the path of the flow 

Answer: A,B 

Explanation: 

RTCP transports statistics for a media connection and information such as transmitted octet and packet counts, packet loss, packet delay variation, and round-trip delay time. An application may use this information to control quality of service parameters, perhaps by limiting flow, or using a different codec. 

Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RTP_Control_Protocol 


Q138. You are configuring a DHCPv6 client for a DHCPv6 server with the prefix delegation feature. Which option is a result of the interface configuration when you enter the command ipv6 address autoconfig default? 

A. a static IPv6 default route pointing to the upstream DHCP server 

B. a static IPv6 default route pointing to the upstream DHCP relay 

C. a static IPv6 default route pointing to the upstream router 

D. a temporary stateless address, formed from the EUI-64 bit address and the prefix from the route advertisement of the upstream router 

Answer:


Q139. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which statement about the R1 configuration is true? 

A. It supports the service timestamps log uptime command to display time stamps. 

B. The logging buffer command was used to increase the default of the buffer. 

C. The logging of warning messages is disabled. 

D. Log message sequence numbering is disabled. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

To disable sequence numbers, use the no service sequence-numbers global configuration command. 

This example shows part of a logging display with sequence numbers enableD. 000019: %SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by vty2 (10.34.195.36) 

In this example we see the absence of sequence numbers on the log messages. 

Not A. In this example there are no time stamps or uptimes shown in the logs. 

Not B. The default buffer size is 4096 bytes. 

Not C. The logging level in this example is informational (level 6), which will display levels 0-6 in the logs. Warnings are level 4. 


Q140. Which two statements about OSPF default route injection are true? (Choose two.) 

A. The ABR requires manual configuration to send a default route into an NSSA area. 

B. The ABR injects a default route into a Totally Stub Area. 

C. In a stub area, the ASBR generates a summary LSA with link-state ID 0.0.0.0. 

D. If the default route is missing from the routing table, the ASBR can use the default-information originate command to advertise the default into the OSPF domain. 

E. By default, OSPF normal areas will generate default routes into the routing domain if a default route exists. 

Answer: A,B