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Q51. Which statement best describes synchronous versus asynchronous communications in a Service Oriented Integration (SOI) architecture? 

A. Both synchronous and asynchronous communication should be supported by SOI. Synchronous communication provides an easier programming paradigm. Asynchronous communication provides greater decoupling between the requester and the responder. 

B. The SOI architecture should use only synchronous communication because SOA Services are inherently synchronous. If a back end system supports only asynchronous communications, the "bridging synchronous and asynchronous communications" integration pattern can be used to convert from asynchronous communication to synchronous communication. 

C. The SOI architecture should use only asynchronous communication because asynchronous communication provides greater decoupling in the architecture. If a back-end system supports only synchronous communications, the "bridging synchronous and asynchronous communications" integration pattern can be used to convert from synchronous communication to asynchronous communication. 

D. The SOA Services in the SOI architecture should use only synchronous communication because SOA Services are inherently synchronous. All communication with back-end system should be asynchronous to decouple the SOA Services from the back-end systems. 

E. The communication within the SOI architecture should be asynchronous and should follow the publish-and-subscribe integration pattern. The publish-and-subscribe pattern is the most flexible and provides the greatest decoupling and message throughput. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: When using synchronous communication the service consumer blocks until the service provider responds. This is usually the easiest type of communication to program in the consumer application. Thus, synchronous communication must be supported by the architecture. 

Many applications included in integration scenarios do not provide a synchronous interface. Asynchronous communication is also used when the response time for the source system is too slow to support the timelines of the calling systems. Thus the architecture must support asynchronous communications. 

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture, Service-Oriented Integration, Release 3.0 

Q52. Select the most appropriate reason why three-tier architecture is a better architectural choice than simple client-server architecture for complex enterprise applications. 

A. Three-tier architecture uses three threads to run the applications, so performance is better. 

B. Three-tier architecture combines presentation, business logic, and data processing of business logic, data, and presentation. This allows the tiers to be independently scaled to maximize the investment. 

C. Three-tier architecture combines presentation, business logic, and data processing into a single layer to eliminate network latencies. 

D. Three-tier architecture moves all processing to the client, thereby reducing the load on the server. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Three-tier architecture allows the data tier and middle tier to scale independently. It also allows multiple clients to share the business logic running in the middle tier. This makes distribution of the application a lot easier. Since security, transactions management, and connection management are handled in the middle tier, it gives better control of the resources. Three-tier architecture is more scalable than the simple client-server model and requires less powerful client side machines. Due to these characteristics this architecture is suitable for small to medium enterprise deployments. 

Note: Distributed programming typically falls into one of several basic architectures or categories such as Client-server, three-tier architecture, and N-tier architecture. In the three tier architecture, business logic is handled in the middle tier, presentation rendering is handled on the client and data management is handled in the backend. This architecture allows multiple clients to access centrally deployed business logic components. This allows centralized distribution and management of resources. 

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture, Application Infrastructure Foundation, Release 3.0 

Q53. The Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA) contains both horizontal and vertical architectural layers. Which statements best describe the layers within ORA? 

A. Lavers only provide a means to partition the capabilities encompassed by ORA and have no significance. 

B. Horizontal layers are used to depict that upper layers build on the capabilities provided by lower layers 

C. Vertical layers are used to depict capabilities applied across all the horizontal layers. 

D. Horizontal layers are used to signify that the lower layers can be accessed only via the upper layers. 

E. Vertical layers are used to depict enterprise-wide capabilities, whereas horizontal layers departmental capabilities. 

F. Horizontal layers are stateful, whereas vertical layers are stateless. 

Answer: B,C 

Explanation: B: The horizontal layers illustrate that upper layers build upon or use the capabilities of lower layers. Examples: Shared Infrastructure, Information Management, Information Assets, Application Infrastructure C:Layers depicted vertically are orthogonal to the horizontal layers and apply across the entire platform, working in conjunction with horizontal layers to provide a complete solution. Examples: Enterprise Development, Enterprise Security, Enterprise Management 

Note: In order to promote modularity and encapsulation, an architecture will usually be divided into layers. Each layer has a specific purpose and leverages technologies, standards, and products designed specifically to address that purpose. Layers generally build upon the layers below and provide benefits and capabilities to the layers above. The ORA diagram in the figure below illustrates the many aspects of enterprise computing in the form of horizontal and vertical layers 

Q54. Which statement best describes the role of the Data Normalization Layer within the Logical view of the Service-Oriented Integration (SOI) architecture? 

A. The Data Normalization Layer converts all data formats to third normal form to facilitate database access. 

B. The Data Normalization Layer converts all data formats to XML to facilitate platform independent. 

C. The Data Normalization Layer hides the complexity of the multiple data formats used by back end systems by converting data to standardized formats. 

D. The Data Normalization Layer stores persistent data in a normalized format. 

E. The Data Normalization Layer provides normalized access to all databasesiIncluded as back- end systems in the architecture. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The Data Normalization Layer provides a standardized format for data entities. Each EIS stores data in its own (usually proprietary) format. This layer transforms the data to a form that is readily consumable by the upper layers in the architecture. 

The primary purpose of this layer in the architecture is to encapsulate and hide the complexity of the data models and formats used by the back-end systems. This allows the upper layers in the architecture to operate on data entities that match the needs of the business rather than operating on data that match the storage approach of the back-end systems. 

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture, Service-Oriented Integration, Release 3.0 

Q55. What is meant by cache hit rate or ratio? 

A. the percentage of times the cache was hit successfully over the total number of tries 

B. the percentage of times the cache was refreshed from the back-end database 

C. the number of servers the cache is replicated to 

D. the ratio of cache objects in a server to the total number of cache objectsin the server cluster 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Cache hit rate or ratio: The percentage of times the cache was hit successfully over the total number of tries is called the hit ratio. 

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture, Application Infrastructure Foundation, Release 3.0

Up to the minute 1Z0-574 latest exam:

Q56. How is Oracle Database Firewall (ODF) used to protect applications from attacks such as SQL- Injection? 

A. ODF is an option for the Oracle Database. A DBA configures this option to inspect database commands and compare them with a set of known attacks. An ODF agent periodically downloads the latest signatures in order to keep up with the latest known types of attacks. 

B. ODF is a feature of Oracle Advanced Security. A database security administrator configures each database realm with a set of acceptable ports and protocols from which database clients can connect. Valid connections are continuously monitored for suspicious activity. 

C. ODF is an agent based secure connection component that is installed on the database and on the clients. It creates a VPN-like connection between the two that greatly reduces the likelihood of man-in-the-middle and SQL-injection attacks. An administrator installs ODF and configures it for a specific environment. 

D. ODF is a stand-alone product that is installed in between the client and database. It monitors and/or blocks SQL statements, comparing them against a set of known good or known bad statements. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Oracle Database Firewall (ODF) - ODF is the first line of defense for both Oracle and non-Oracle databases. It monitors database activity on the network to help prevent unauthorized access, SQL injections, and other forms of attack. ODF uses positive (white list) and negative (black list) security models to validate SQL commands before they can reach the database. The ODF instances act as a firewall for incoming SQL traffic. Each instance can handle multiple downstream databases, and the instances are configured for high availability. SQL traffic must pass through the firewall boxes in order to reach the databases. ODF protects Oracle, MySQL, Microsoft SQL Server, IBM DB2 for Linux, Unix, and Windows, and Sybase databases 

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,Security, Release 3.1 

Q57. Which of the following are primary parts of a SOA Service as defined by the Oracle Reference Architecture? 

A. Service Contract 

B. Usage Agreement 

C. Service Infrastructure 

D. Service Implementation 

E. Service Interface 

F. Web Services Description Language (WSDL) 

Answer: A,D,E 

Explanation: The three primary parts of a SOA Service as defined by ORA are contract, interface, and implementation. 


A Service Contract describes the SOA Service in human-readable terms. 

The Service Implementation is the technical realization of the contract. I 

A Service Interface provides a means for the consumers of a SOA Service to access its functionality according to the Service Contract. 

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture, Service-Oriented Integration, Release 3.0 

Q58. Which of the following environments are typically clustered? 

A. Development Environment 

B. User Acceptance Testing (UAT) Environment 

C. Staging Environment 

D. Nonfunctional Testing Environment 

Answer: B 

Explanation: UAT (also known as beta testing) : Formal testing with respect to user needs, requirements, and business processes conducted to determine whether or not a system satisfies the acceptance criteria and to enable the user, customers or other authorized entity to determine whether or not to accept the system. 

Incorrect answer: 

The staging tier is a environment that is as identical to the production environment as possible. 

The purpose of the Staging environment is to simulate as much of the Production environment as possible. The Staging environment can also double as a Demonstration/Training environment. 

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,Business Process Engineering, Release 3.0 

Q59. Data is often said to exist in one of three states: 

1. In motion – being transmitted over a network or connection 

2. At rest – persisted in a queue, disk, file, and so on 

3. In memory – loaded into computer memory 

The third state, in memory, is seldom mentioned in security standards, texts and requirements. Why? 

A. Computer memory has built-in parity checking which protects against malicious alteration 

B. No one has direct access to a computer’s memory, therefore it is the safest place to be. 

C. All modern computers (developed since the mid-90s) automatically store data in memory in encrypted from to help ensure confidentiality and integrity, because of this, more emphasis has been placed on raising the level of protection in the other two states. 

D. This state is often overlooked. Data in memory can easily be viewed by anyone with system administrator. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: In Memory - a term used here to describe data that is currently being processed and therefore exposed to any program, diagnostic tool, operating system command, virus, etc. that is able to access memory. 

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,Security, Release 3.1 

Q60. Which statement best describe the benefits of asset dependency tracking? 

A. Tracking the asset dependencies allows you to performiImpact analysis when changes need to occur. 

B. It is a governance mechanism to control and streamline changes to the assets. 

C. Dependency tracking improves the quality of code by ensuring 100% code coverage. 

D. Dependency tracking improves the performance by collocating related assets. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: As the number of assets grow rapidly, the interdependencies become hard to track if not managed properly. Dependency tracking is beneficial as the number of assets increases, the relationships become more complex, and the need to revise or retire assets arises. Tracking the dependencies allows us to perform impact analysis when changes need to occur. This goes both ways - one may need to understand the dependencies an asset has, if the asset needs to be changed, moved, or virtualized; or one may need to understand what assets depend on a particular resource, if that resource needs to be modified, retired, or moved. 

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,Software Engineering, Release 3.0