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NEW QUESTION 1
Check Point recommends configuring Disk Space Management parameters to delete old log entries when available disk space is less than or equal to?
- A. 50%
- B. 75%
- C. 80%
- D. 15%
NEW QUESTION 2
SmartEvent provides a convenient way to run common command line executables that can assist in investigating events. Right-clicking the IP address, source or destination, in an event provides a list of default and customized commands. They appear only on cells that refer to IP addresses because the IP address of the active cell is used as the destination of the command when run. The default commands are:
- A. ping, traceroute, netstat, and route
- B. ping, nslookup, Telnet, and route
- C. ping, whois, nslookup, and Telnet
- D. ping, traceroute, netstat, and nslookup
NEW QUESTION 3
What is the purpose of Priority Delta in VRRP?
- A. When a box up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta
- B. When an Interface is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta
- C. When an Interface fail, Effective Priority = Priority – Priority Delta
- D. When a box fail, Effective Priority = Priority – Priority Delta
Each instance of VRRP running on a supported interface may monitor the link state of other interfaces. The monitored interfaces do not have to be running VRRP.
If a monitored interface loses its link state, then VRRP will decrement its priority over a VRID by the specified delta value and then will send out a new VRRP HELLO packet. If the new effective priority is less than the priority a backup platform has, then the backup platform will beging to send out its own HELLO packet.
Once the master sees this packet with a priority greater than its own, then it releases the VIP. References:
NEW QUESTION 4
One of major features in R80 SmartConsole is concurrent administration.
Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?
- A. A lock icon shows that a rule or an object is locked and will be available.
- B. AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.
- C. A lock icon next to a rule informs that any Administrator is working on this particular rule.
- D. AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.
NEW QUESTION 5
When Identity Awareness is enabled, which identity source(s) is(are) used for Application Control?
- A. RADIUS
- B. Remote Access and RADIUS
- C. AD Query
- D. AD Query and Browser-based Authentication
Identity Awareness gets identities from these acquisition sources:
NEW QUESTION 6
The log server sends what to the Correlation Unit?
- A. Authentication requests
- B. CPMI dbsync
- C. Logs
- D. Event Policy
NEW QUESTION 7
Fill in the blank: The R80 utility fw monitor is used to troubleshoot _______ .
- A. User data base corruption
- B. LDAP conflicts
- C. Traffic issues
- D. Phase two key negotiations
Check Point’s FW Monitor is a powerful built-in tool for capturing network traffic at the packet level. The FW Monitor utility captures network packets at multiple capture points along the FireWall inspection chains. These captured packets can be inspected later using the WireShark.
NEW QUESTION 8
Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade?
- A. Detects and blocks malware by correlating multiple detection engines before users are affected.
- B. Configure rules to limit the available network bandwidth for specified users or groups.
- C. Use UserCheck to help users understand that certain websites are against the company’s security policy.
- D. Make rules to allow or block applications and Internet sites for individual applications, categories, and risk levels.
NEW QUESTION 9
What kind of information would you expect to see using the sim affinity command?
- A. The VMACs used in a Security Gateway cluster
- B. The involved firewall kernel modules in inbound and outbound packet chain
- C. Overview over SecureXL templated connections
- D. Network interfaces and core distribution used for CoreXL
NEW QUESTION 10
What command verifies that the API server is responding?
- A. api stat
- B. api status
- C. show api_status
- D. app_get_status
NEW QUESTION 11
You need to see which hotfixes are installed on your gateway, which command would you use?
- A. cpinfo –h all
- B. cpinfo –o hotfix
- C. cpinfo –l hotfix
- D. cpinfo –y all
NEW QUESTION 12
In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some logical components. These objects are divided into several categories. Which of the following is NOT an objects category?
- A. Limit
- B. Resource
- C. Custom Application / Site
- D. Network Object
NEW QUESTION 13
What needs to be configured if the NAT property ‘Translate destination or client side’ is not enabled in Global Properties?
- A. A host route to route to the destination IP.
- B. Use the file local.arp to add the ARP entries for NAT to work.
- C. Nothing, the Gateway takes care of all details necessary.
- D. Enabling ‘Allow bi-directional NAT’ for NAT to work correctly.
NEW QUESTION 14
Fill in the blank: The R80 feature _______ permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period.
- A. Block Port Overflow
- B. Local Interface Spoofing
- C. Suspicious Activity Monitoring
- D. Adaptive Threat Prevention
Suspicious Activity Rules Solution
Suspicious Activity Rules is a utility integrated into SmartView Monitor that is used to modify access privileges upon detection of any suspicious network activity (for example, several attempts to gain unauthorized access).
The detection of suspicious activity is based on the creation of Suspicious Activity rules. Suspicious Activity rules are Firewall rules that enable the system administrator to instantly block suspicious connections that are not restricted by the currently enforced security policy. These rules, once set (usually with an expiration date), can be applied immediately without the need to perform an Install Policy operation.
NEW QUESTION 15
Please choose correct command to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?
- A. host name myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90
- B. mgmt: add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90
- C. add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90
- D. mgmt: add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90
NEW QUESTION 16
Check Point ClusterXL Active/Active deployment is used when:
- A. Only when there is Multicast solution set up.
- B. There is Load Sharing solution set up.
- C. Only when there is Unicast solution set up.
- D. There is High Availability solution set up.
NEW QUESTION 17
Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?
- A. $FWDIR/state/proxy_arp.conf on the management server
- B. $FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the management server
- C. $FWDIR/state/_tmp/proxy.arp on the security gateway
- D. $FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the gateway
NEW QUESTION 18
Which feature is NOT provided by all Check Point Mobile Access solutions?
- A. Support for IPv6
- B. Granular access control
- C. Strong user authentication
- D. Secure connectivity
Types of Solutions
All of Check Point's Remote Access solutions provide:
NEW QUESTION 19
What are the main stages of a policy installations?
- A. Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Commit
- B. Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Installation
- C. Verification, Commit, Installation
- D. Verification, Compilation & Transfer, Installation
NEW QUESTION 20
Which command is used to obtain the configuration lock in Gaia?
- A. Lock database override
- B. Unlock database override
- C. Unlock database lock
- D. Lock database user
Obtaining a Configuration Lock
NEW QUESTION 21
Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidates management console. CPM allows the GUI client and management server to communicate via web services using _______ .
- A. TCP port 19009
- B. TCP Port 18190
- C. TCP Port 18191
- D. TCP Port 18209
NEW QUESTION 22
Which options are given on features, when editing a Role on Gaia Platform?
- A. Read/Write, Read Only
- B. Read/Write, Read Only, None
- C. Read/Write, None
- D. Read Only, None
NEW QUESTION 23
What is the correct order of the default “fw monitor” inspection points?
- A. i, I, o, O
- B. 1, 2, 3, 4
- C. i, o, I, O
- D. I, i, O, o
NEW QUESTION 24
Which command is used to set the CCP protocol to Multicast?
- A. cphaprob set_ccp multicast
- B. cphaconf set_ccp multicast
- C. cphaconf set_ccp no_broadcast
- D. cphaprob set_ccp no_broadcast
NEW QUESTION 25
Ken wants to obtain a configuration lock from other administrator on R80 Security Management Server. He can do this via WebUI or via CLI.
Which command should he use in CLI? (Choose the correct answer.)
- A. remove database lock
- B. The database feature has one command lock database override.
- C. override database lock
- D. The database feature has two commands lock database override and unlock databas
- E. Both will work.
NEW QUESTION 26
You have existing dbedit scripts from R77. Can you use them with R80.10?
- A. dbedit is not supported in R80.10
- B. dbedit is fully supported in R80.10
- C. You can use dbedit to modify threat prevention or access policies, but not create or modify layers
- D. dbedit scripts are being replaced by mgmt_cli in R80.10
NEW QUESTION 27
Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?
- A. Manage Setting
- B. Security Policies
- C. Gateway and Servers
- D. Logs and Monitor
NEW QUESTION 28
Which of the following will NOT affect acceleration?
- A. Connections destined to or originated from the Security gateway
- B. A 5-tuple match
- C. Multicast packets
- D. Connections that have a Handler (ICMP, FTP, H.323, etc.)
NEW QUESTION 29
DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?
- A. Standard Policies
- B. Shared Policies
- C. Inspection Policies
- D. Unified Policies
NEW QUESTION 30
Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidated management console. It empowers the migration from legacy Client-side logic to Server-side logic. The cpm process:
- A. Allow GUI Client and management server to communicate via TCP Port 19001
- B. Allow GUI Client and management server to communicate via TCP Port 18191
- C. Performs database tasks such as creating, deleting, and modifying objects and compiling policy.
- D. Performs database tasks such as creating, deleting, and modifying objects and compiling as well as policy code generation.
NEW QUESTION 31
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