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Q41. HOTSPOT
The security administrator has installed a new firewall which implements an implicit DENY policy by default. Click on the firewall and configure it to allow ONLY the following communication.
1. The Accounting workstation can ONLY access the web server on the public network over the default HTTPS port. The accounting workstation should not access other networks.
2. The HR workstation should be restricted to communicate with the Financial server ONLY, over the default SCP port
3. The Admin workstation should ONLY be able to access the servers on the secure network over the default TFTP port.
Instructions: The firewall will process the rules in a top-down manner in order as a first match The port number must be typed in and only one port number can be entered per rule Type ANY for all ports. The original firewall configuration can be reset at any time by pressing the reset button. Once you have met the simulation requirements, click save and then Done to submit.
Answer:
Explanation:
Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren’t specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you’re denied access by default. Rule #1 allows the Accounting workstation to ONLY access the web server on the public network over the default HTTPS port, which is TCP port 443. Rule #2 allows the HR workstation to ONLY communicate with the Financial server over the
default SCP port, which is TCP Port 22
Rule #3 & Rule #4 allow the Admin workstation to ONLY access the Financial and Purchasing
servers located on the secure network over the default TFTP port, which is Port 69.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 26, 44.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_TCP_and_UDP_port_numbers
Q42. The security team would like to gather intelligence about the types of attacks being launched against the organization. Which of the following would provide them with the MOST information?
A. Implement a honeynet
B. Perform a penetration test
C. Examine firewall logs
D. Deploy an IDS
Answer: A
Explanation:
A honeynet is a network set up with intentional vulnerabilities; its purpose is to invite attack, so that an attacker's activities and methods can be studied and that information used to increase network security. A honeynet contains one or more honey pots, which are computer systems on the Internet expressly set up to attract and "trap" people who attempt to penetrate other people's computer systems. Although the primary purpose of a honeynet is to gather information about attackers' methods and motives, the decoy network can benefit its operator in other ways, for example by diverting attackers from a real network and its resources. The Honeynet Project, a non-profit research organization dedicated to computer security and information sharing, actively promotes the deployment of honeynets. In addition to the honey pots, a honeynet usually has real applications and services so that it seems like a normal network and a worthwhile target. However, because the honeynet doesn't actually serve any authorized users, any attempt to contact the network from without is likely an illicit attempt to breach its security, and any outbound activity is likely evidence that a system has been compromised. For this reason, the suspect information is much more apparent than it would be in an actual network, where it would have to be found amidst all the legitimate network data. Applications within a honeynet are often given names such as "Finances" or "Human Services" to make them sound appealing to the attacker.
A virtual honeynet is one that, while appearing to be an entire network, resides on a single server.
Q43. Which of the following is the BEST method for ensuring all files and folders are encrypted on all corporate laptops where the file structures are unknown?
A. Folder encryption
B. File encryption
C. Whole disk encryption
D. Steganography
Answer: C
Explanation:
Full-disk encryption encrypts the data on the hard drive of the device or on a removable drive. This feature ensures that the data on the device or removable drive cannot be accessed in a useable form should it be stolen. Furthermore, full-disk encryption is not dependant on knowledge of the file structure.
Q44. Which of the following is the below pseudo-code an example of?
IF VARIABLE (CONTAINS NUMBERS = TRUE) THEN EXIT
A. Buffer overflow prevention
B. Input validation
C. CSRF prevention
D. Cross-site scripting prevention
Answer: B
Explanation:
Input validation is a defensive technique intended to mitigate against possible user input attacks, such as buffer overflows and fuzzing. Input validation checks every user input submitted to the application before processing that input. The check could be a length, a character type, a language type, or a domain.
Q45. An access point has been configured for AES encryption but a client is unable to connect to it. Which of the following should be configured on the client to fix this issue?
A. WEP
B. CCMP
C. TKIP
D. RC4
Answer: B
Explanation:
CCMP is an encryption protocol designed for Wireless LAN products that implement the standards of the IEEE 802.11i amendment to the original IEEE 802.11 standard. CCMP is an enhanced data cryptographic encapsulation mechanism designed for data confidentiality and based upon the Counter Mode with CBC-MAC (CCM) of the AES standard.
Regenerate SY0-401 exam question:
Q46. Purchasing receives a phone call from a vendor asking for a payment over the phone. The phone number displayed on the caller ID matches the vendor’s number. When the purchasing agent asks to call the vendor back, they are given a different phone number with a different area code.
Which of the following attack types is this?
A. Hoax
B. Impersonation
C. Spear phishing
D. Whaling
Answer: B
Explanation:
In this question, the impersonator is impersonating a vendor and asking for payment. They have managed to ‘spoof’ their calling number so that their caller ID matches the vendor’s number. Impersonation is where a person, computer, software application or service pretends to be someone or something it’s not. Impersonation is commonly non-maliciously used in client/server applications. However, it can also be used as a security threat.
Q47. A company hosts its public websites internally. The administrator would like to make some changes to the architecture.
The three goals are:
(1)
reduce the number of public IP addresses in use by the web servers
(2)
drive all the web traffic through a central point of control
(3)
mitigate automated attacks that are based on IP address scanning
Which of the following would meet all three goals?
A. Firewall
B. Load balancer
C. URL filter
D. Reverse proxy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q48. A datacenter requires that staff be able to identify whether or not items have been removed from the facility. Which of the following controls will allow the organization to provide automated notification of item removal?
A. CCTV
B. Environmental monitoring
C. RFID
D. EMI shielding
Answer: C
Explanation:
RFID is radio frequency identification that works with readers that work with 13.56 MHz smart cards and 125 kHz proximity cards and can open turnstiles, gates, and any other physical security safeguards once the signal is read. Fitting out the equipment with RFID will allow you to provide automated notification of item removal in the event of any of the equipped items is taken off the premises.
Q49. An SSL/TLS private key is installed on a corporate web proxy in order to inspect HTTPS requests. Which of the following describes how this private key should be stored so that it is protected from theft?
A. Implement full disk encryption
B. Store on encrypted removable media
C. Utilize a hardware security module
D. Store on web proxy file system
Answer: C
Explanation:
Hardware Security Module (HSM) hardware-based encryption solution that is usually used in conjunction with PKI to enhance security with certification authorities (CAs). It is available as an expansion card and can cryptographic keys, passwords, or certificates.
Q50. Pete, a developer, writes an application. Jane, the security analyst, knows some things about the
overall application but does not have all the details. Jane needs to review the software before it is released to production. Which of the following reviews should Jane conduct?
A. Gray Box Testing
B. Black Box Testing
C. Business Impact Analysis
D. White Box Testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Gray box testing, also called gray box analysis, is a strategy for software debugging in which the tester has limited knowledge of the internal details of the program. A gray box is a device, program or system whose workings are partially understood. Gray box testing can be contrasted with black box testing, a scenario in which the tester has no knowledge or access to the internal workings of a program, or white box testing, a scenario in which the internal particulars are fully known. Gray box testing is commonly used in penetration tests. Gray box testing is considered to be non-intrusive and unbiased because it does not require that the tester have access to the source code. With respect to internal processes, gray box testing treats a program as a black box that must be analyzed from the outside. During a gray box test, the person may know how the system components interact but not have detailed knowledge about internal program functions and operation. A clear distinction exists between the developer and the tester, thereby minimizing the risk of personnel conflicts.