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NEW QUESTION 1

A test management tool is most likely to integrate with which of the following tools?

• A. Performance testing tool
• B. Test data preparation tool
• C. Static analysis tool
• D. Requirements management tool

Answer: D

Explanation:
Requirements management tools (option (D)) often have interfaces with test management tools. In some cases they will be sold as a package or in other cases a test management tool may have its own requirements module. The use of such interfaces or integrated packages aids traceability from requirements through to test scripts and defects.
Performance management tools (option (A)), test data preparation tools (option (B)) and static analysis tools (option (C)) are unlikely to have an interface or be integrated with a test management tool. They serve different purposes and therefore there is little need for such interfaces.

NEW QUESTION 2

Given the Following program IF X <>= ZTHEN Statement 2;ENDMcCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 5

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3

Which of the following is a defect that is more likely to be found by a static analysis tool than by other testing techniques?

• A. Omission of a major requirement
• B. Inadequate decision coverage
• C. Component memory leakage
• D. Variables that are not used improperly declared

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4

Which is not in sequence in 11 Step Software Testing process..?

• A. Assess development plan and status
• B. Develop the test plan
• C. Test software design
• D. Test software requirement

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5

Which of the following is MOST important in the selection of a test approach?

• A. Availability of tools to support the proposed techniques.
• B. The budget allowed for training in proposed techniques.
• C. Available skills and experience in the proposed techniques.
• D. The willingness of the test team to learn new techniques.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6

Relying only on the information provided in the scenario, select the TWO items and/or features for which sufficient information is available to proceed with test design. 2 credits

• A. All supported credit cards
• B. Language localization
• C. Valid and invalid advances
• D. Usability
• E. Response time

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 7

Hand over of Testware is a part of which Phase:

• A. Test Analysis and Design
• B. Test Planning and control
• C. Test Closure Activities
• D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8

Non-functional system testing includes:

• A. Testing to see where the system does not function properly
• B. Testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
• C. Testing a system feature using only the software required for that action
• D. Testing a system feature using only the software required for that function
• E. Testing for functions that should not exist

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 9

An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004. The boundary values for testing this field are:

• A. 0,1900,2004,2005
• B. 1900, 2004
• C. 1899,1900,2004,2005
• D. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 10

It is recommended to perform exhaustive tests for covering all combinations of inputs and preconditions.

• A. Yes, it’s strongly recommended.
• B. No, risk analysis and priorities should be used to focus testing efforts
• C. Yes, and it’s also necessary to include all the exit combinations
• D. Only the expert testers can make exhaustive tests.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11

Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:

• A. Statement Coverage
• B. Pole Coverage
• C. Condition Coverage
• D. Path Coverage

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12

Which of the following are most characteristic of structure-based testing?
(i) Information about how the software is constructed is used to derive test cases.
(ii) Statement coverage and/or decision coverage can be measured for existing test cases.
(iii) The knowledge and experience of people are used to derive test cases.
(iv) Test cases are derived from a model or specification of the system.

• A. (i) and (ii)
• B. (ii) and (iii)
• C. (ii) and (iv)
• D. (i) and (iii)

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13

During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?

• A. When the code is complete.
• B. When the design is complete.
• C. When the software requirements have been approved.
• D. When the first code module is ready for unit testing

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 14

How can test execution tools be of most benefit during exploratory testing?

• A. They can record user actions so that defects are easier to recreate.
• B. They can be used to perform the regression aspects of exploratory testing.
• C. They can help to mitigate the risk of low test coverage.
• D. They can use data-driven tests to increase the amount of exploratory testing performed.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Exploratory testing is used when it is unclear what the system is supposed to do. Therefore test execution tools are of little use because expected results cannot be predicted.
However, the record feature of a test execution tool can be used to log the actions performed so that defects can be recreated (option (A)) and rectified more easily.

NEW QUESTION 15

What is static analysis?

• A. The decision between using white or black box test techniques.
• B. Executing software to validate the most common path through the code.
• C. A technique to find defects in software source code and software models, performed without executing code.
• D. It is a testing technique used during system testing.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 16

Based on the information given in the scenario, identify how the team could be improved most effectively? 2 credits

• A. By providing training in the payroll domain
• B. By providing a workshop on test design techniques
• C. By providing specific training on the systems being tested
• D. By providing training on reviewing requirements

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 17

Which one of the following roles is typically used in a review?

• A. Champion.
• B. Author.
• C. Project sponsor.
• D. Custodian.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Author is the only role that is typically used in a review.
A Champion might sponsor the review process but is not a defined role within an actual review; a Project Sponsor, if technically competent, might be asked to play a defined role within the review process, but whilst using that role they will not be a Project Sponsor; finally, a Custodian might ensure the results are stored safely but would not be involved in the actual review itself.

NEW QUESTION 18

Which of the following processes ensures that all items of testware are identified, version controlled, tracked for changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process?

• A. Software traceability process
• B. Incidence management process
• C. Testing design process
• D. Configuration management process

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 19

Which of the following is not decided in the test-planning phase..?

• A. Schedules and deliverables
• B. Hardware and software
• C. Entry and exit criteria
• D. Types of test cases

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 20

Which from the following list are typically found to enable the review process to be successful? [K2]
* a. Each review has clear defined objectives
* b. The lower the number of defects, the better the review process
* c. The right people for the review objective are involved
* d. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement
* e. Management are not involved in the process at all
* f. Checklists should not be used, as these slow down the process
* g. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively

• A. a, f and g.
• B. b, c and f.
• C. a, c and d.
• D. d, e and g.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 21

What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing..?

• A. Use automation tool for testing
• B. Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested
• C. Both a and b
• D. None of the above

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 22

Why is measurement of code coverage Important?

• A. Because 100% code coverage implies 100% coverage of requirements
• B. Because 100% code coverage guarantees that there are no coding errors
• C. Because code coverage can be used to ensure that all code is exercised by tests
• D. Because code coverage can ensure that all decisions are correctly implemented in the code

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 23

Which of the following are valid justifications for developers testing their own code during unit testing?
(i) Their lack of independence is mitigated by independent testing during system and acceptance testing.
(ii) A person with a good understanding of the code can find more defects more quickly using white-box techniques.
(iii) Developers have a better understanding of the requirements than testers.
(iv) Testers write unnecessary incident reports because they find minor differences between the way in which the system behaves and the way in which it is specified to work.

• A. (i) and (ii)
• B. (i) and (iv)
• C. (ii) and (iii)
• D. (iii) and (iv)

Answer: A

Explanation:
It is unlikely that developers will have a better understanding of the requirements than testers, partly because testers work closely with the user community (and may be drawn from it) and partly because developers seldom work with the complete set of requirements in a medium to large development.
Testers may raise incidents related to the difference between user expectations and the specification, but these are not unnecessary. Such issues are more likely to arise at the later stages of testing.
Early testing (unit testing) is usually done most effectively by developers with a good understanding of the code and the development environment; they can be more efficient and more effective at this level. Later independent stages of testing offset any disadvantage from the lack of independence at unit testing level.

NEW QUESTION 24

Which of the following best describes the purpose of non-functional testing?

• A. To measure characteristics of a system which give an indication of how the system performs its functions
• B. To ensure that a system complies with the quality standards set by ISO 9126
• C. To ensure that the system deals appropriately with software malfunctions
• D. To measure the extent to which a system has been tested by functional testing

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 25

Which of the following is the main purpose of the component build and integration strategy?

• A. to ensure that all of the small components are tested
• B. to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
• C. to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
• D. to specify how the software should be divided into components
• E. to specify which components to combine when, and how many at once

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 26

Which of the following describes structure-based (white-box) test case design techniques?

• A. Test cases are derived systematically from models of the system.
• B. Test cases are derived systematically from the tester's experience.
• C. Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code.
• D. Test cases are derived from the developers' experience.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Answer (A) relates to specification-based testing, answer (B) relates to experience-based testing and answer
(D) could relate either to debugging or to experience-based techniques.

NEW QUESTION 27

A test assessment has been carried out using the selected model as a reference framework. A number of recommendations have been identified and you are asked to prioritize them. Based on your knowledge of the project, you are expecting severe resistance to change. Which of the following would be the most important selection criterion for defining the priority of the recommendations? 2 credits

• A. Synchronized with the overall long-term organizational strategy
• B. Defined according to the maturity model used
• C. Most visible to stakeholders
• D. Low costs actions first

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 28
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