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Q61. How can you start and stop P8 components? 

A. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager. 

B. Command-line based instruction only for Unix. 

C. Graphical user interface (GUI) only for Windows. 

D. Graphical user interface (GUI) based or command-line-based instruction. 

Answer: D 


Q62. What P8 domain level entity allows specific meta data attributes to be identified that control the effective access of an object in conjunction with the object's Access Control List (ACL)? 

A. Marking sets. 

B. Storage area. 

C. Add-on feature. 

D. Security inheritance. 

Answer: A 


Q63. Content Federation Services (CFS) provides a number of operations. Which operation is only available with IBM Content Integrator (CFS-ICI) with out-of-the-box tools? 

A. Move 

B. Delete 

C. Create 

D. Update 

Answer: A 


Q64. P8 Content Federation Services (CFS) natively supports which two of the following configurations for federation? (choose two): 

A. SAP (CFS-SAP) 

B. Sharepoint (CFS-SP) 

C. OnDemand (CFS-OD) 

D. Lotus Quickr (CFS-LQ) 

E. IBM Content Integrator (CFS-ICI) 

Answer: C,E 


Q65. When preparing to deploy a system using Deployment Manager, which one of the following files contains the list of assets to be exported? 

A. Half map. 

B. Export dataset. 

C. Export manifest. 

D. Deployment dataset. 

Answer: C 


Q66. In which two scenarios should the Content Consistency Checker be used? (choose two.) 

A. Content Engine is performing slow. 

B. If search templates are not working. 

C. After restoring a storage area from backup media. 

D. To troubleshoot Fixed Content Device connectivity. 

E. If users are unable to view the content of a document when the content is stored in a file storage area, even when they have view-content permissions on the document. 

Answer: C,E 


Q67. Why is it important for audit processing clients to use audit bookmarks? 

A. To mark important audit records for further investigation. 

B. To lock the audit record so other clients will not process the same audit entry. 

C. To mark the document associated with the audit record for further investigation. 

D. To let the audit disposition process know which records have been processed and are eligible for deletion. 

Answer: D 


Q68. What is the primary objective to be considered when implementing a disaster recovery solution for a FileNet P8 platform? 

A. Maintain data integrity for the GCD, objectstore databases, storage areas and index data in the event of a disk failure. 

B. Maintain data integrity for the GCD, objectstore databases, storage areas and index data in the event of data corruption or human error. 

C. Provide high availability through redundant hardware and software so that normal operations can continue uninterrupted after a single failure has occurred. 

D. Provide procedures and infrastructure to ensure business continuity in the event of any failure due to simultaneous failures of all the redundant components or a full disaster. 

Answer: D 

104. How many database storage areas are allowed per object store? 

A. 1 

B. 5 

C. 10 

D. Unlimited 

Answer: A 


Q69. Security Policies support what security management mechanism where security is applied to both versionable and non-versionable objects as the object transitions from one state to another? 

A. Marking Set Security. 

B. Version State Security. 

C. Object-managed State Security. 

D. Application-managed State Security. 

Answer: D 


Q70. Disaster Recovery (DR) planning includes establishing RPO (Recovery Point Objective) and RTO (Recovery Time Objective) values. What is RTO? 

A. The RTO is the amount of time it takes to start the DR servers. 

B. The RTO is the amount of time it takes to replicate databases from PRODUCTION to DR site. 

C. The RTO is the amount of time users are switched to DR site before switching back to original PRODUCTION site. 

D. The RTO is the amount of time that passes from the time a disaster strikes until data center operations have resumed and recovery is complete. 

Answer: D