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2021 Apr 400-101 exam question

Q211. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which statement about this GETVPN configuration is true? 

A. Co-operative key servers are configured. 

B. Redundant peers are configured. 

C. The key server uses multicast mode to propagate rekey messages. 

D. PSK authentication is configured. 

Answer: A 


Q212. Which two statements about BGP best-path selection are true? (Choose two.) 

A. The route with the highest local preference is preferred. 

B. The weight attribute is advertised to peers. 

C. The route with the lowest MED is preferred. 

D. A route that originates from iBGP peers is preferred. 

E. A route that originates from a router with a higher BGP router ID is preferred. 

F. The lowest weight advertised is preferred. 

Answer: A,C 


Q213. Which mechanism can be used on Layer 2 switches so that only multicast packets with downstream receivers are sent on the multicast router-connected ports? 

A. IGMP snooping 

B. Router Guard 

C. PIM snooping 

D. multicast filtering 

Answer: C 

Explanation: 

Ideally, the Layer 2 device should forward the multicast transmission only out ports to which receivers are connected and also out any ports that are connected to downstream multicast routers. This configuration requires a Layer 2 device to be able to determine the ports on which multicast routers and receivers for each separate (S,G) or (*,G) multicast group are located. To facilitate intelligent forwarding of multicast traffic on the LAN, Cisco Catalyst switches support two mechanisms: 

. IGMP snooping — The switch listens in or "snoops" IGMP communications between receivers and multicast routers. This snooping enables the switch to determine which ports are connected to receivers for each multicast group and which ports are connected to multicast routers. 

. Cisco Group Management Protocol (CGMP) — The switch communicates with multicasts routers, with multicast routers relaying group membership information to switches. 

Reference: https://www.informit.com/library/content.aspx?b=CCNP_Studies_Switching&seqNum=59 


Q214. Refer to the exhibit. 

What password will be required to enter privileged EXEC mode on a device with the given configuration? 

A. ciscotest 

B. ciscocert 

C. cisco 

D. ciscors 

E. ciscoccie 

Answer: A 


Q215. Which two metrics are measured with active probes when PfR voice traffic optimization is in use? (Choose two.) 

A. MOS 

B. cost 

C. jitter 

D. bandwidth 

Answer: A,C 


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Q216. Independent, multiple OSPF processes are entered on the same router, and the processes have the same destination route. Which OSPF process is used? 

A. The route with the fewest hops is used. 

B. Both processes are used to load balance the traffic. 

C. The first route process that places a route into the routing table is used. 

D. The route with the shortest prefix is used. 

Answer: C 


Q217. Refer to the exhibit. 

Why is the loopback 0 interface of R4 missing in the routing table of R2? 

A. R2 is configured as a route reflector client. 

B. There is no peering between R2 and R3. 

C. The next hop is not reachable from R2. 

D. The route originated within the same AS. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: 

In the “show ip bgp” output we see that there is no peering session between R2 and R3. Since R3 is the route reflector here, R3 would reflect routes advertised from R4 to R2, but the peer needs to be established first. 


Q218. Which three protocols can use enhanced object tracking? (Choose three.) 

A. HSRP 

B. Proxy-ARP 

C. VRRP 

D. GLBP 

E. NTP 

F. DHCP 

Answer: A,C,D 

Explanation: 

The Enhanced Object Tracking feature separates the tracking mechanism from HSRP and creates a separate standalone tracking process that can be used by other processes and HSRP. This feature allows tracking of other objects in addition to the interface line-protocol state. A client process such as HSRP, Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP), or Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP), can register its interest in tracking objects and then be notified when the tracked object changes state. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipapp/configuration/15-mt/iap-15-mt-book/iap-eot.html 


Q219. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which two statements are true regarding prefix 10.1.0.0/24? (Choose two.) 

A. The prefix is in policy, and Cisco PfR rerouted the traffic via 10.4.5.3 Et0/1 because of an OOP event. 

B. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via passive NetFlow mode only. 

C. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via active, fast, or active throughput IP SLA probe mode only. 

D. The prefix is in policy, and Cisco PfR did not reroute the traffic via 10.4.5.3 Et0/1 because the traffic was previously in policy. 

E. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via mode monitor, which provides both NetFlow and IP SLA measurements. 

Answer: D,E 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/pfr/command/pfr-cr-book/pfr-s1.html#wp2707728086 


Q220. Which statement about OTV is true? 

A. The overlay interface becomes active only when configuration is complete and it is manually enabled. 

B. OTV data groups can operate only in PIM sparse-mode. 

C. The overlay interface becomes active immediately when it is configured. 

D. The interface facing the OTV groups must be configured with the highest MTU possible. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

OTV has the following configuration guidelines and limitations: 

. If the same device serves as the default gateway in a VLAN interface and the OTV edge device for the VLANs being extended, configure OTV on a device (VDC or switch) that is separate from the VLAN interfaces (SVIs). 

. When possible, we recommend that you use a separate nondefault VDC for OTV to allow for better manageability and maintenance. 

. An overlay interface will only be in an up state if the overlay interface configuration is complete and enabled (no shutdown). The join interface has to be in an up state. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-os/OTV/config_guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_Series_NX-OS_OTV_Configuration_Guide/basic-otv.html